Bio Test Bank 3p662k

Chapter 01 Test Bank: An Introduction to Biology 


Multiple Choice Questions


1. The simplest structure shared among all living organisms is the 
 A. gut. 
 B. cell. 
 C. photosynthetic chloroplast. 
 D. community. 
 E. nucleus. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


2. Which of the following is likely NOT a common feature shared among all living organisms? 
 A. All living organisms use energy. 
 B. All living organisms maintain organization. 
 C. All living organisms have evolved over the course of many generations. 
 D. All living organisms maintain some level of homeostasis. 
 E. All living organisms are composed of similar structures. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


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3. All living organisms respond and adjust to their environments. The process through which this occurs is called 
 A. photosynthesis. 
 B. metabolism. 
 C. adaptation. 
 D. growth and development. 
 E. genomics. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


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4. The process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment in the face of a fluctuating external environment is called 
 A. metabolism. 
 B. cellular respiration. 
 C. growth and development. 
 D. homeostasis. 
 E. functional proteomics and genomics. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


5. Polypeptides (proteins) are composed of amino acids as ________ are composed of DNA. 
 A. genes 
 B. RNA 
 C. proteomes 
 D. lipids 
 E. metabolites 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


6. We maintain a fairly constant body temperature despite exposures to different seasons or external temperatures. This is achieved through our capacity to 
 A. adapt to changing environments. 
 B. regulate body temperature. 
 C. maintain homeostasis. 
 D. All of these choices are correct. 
 E. None of these choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


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7. All of the chemical reactions used to break down nutrients and build up components within the body are collectively known as 
 A. anabolism. 
 B. catabolism. 
 C. metabolism. 
 D. proteolysis. 
 E. hydrolysis. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


8. Which level of organization includes all others? 
 A. cell 
 B. tissue 
 C. organ 
 D. organism 
 E. population 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


9. Which level of organization is required for all others to form? 
 A. cell 
 B. tissue 
 C. organ 
 D. organism 
 E. population 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


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10. When cells associate with each other they form 
 A. atoms. 
 B. molecules. 
 C. macromolecules. 
 D. tissues. 
 E. populations. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


11. When communities of organisms interact with their physical environment they form a(n) 
 A. population. 
 B. organism. 
 C. community. 
 D. ecosystem. 
 E. macromolecular community. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


12. Which of the following is LEAST likely required for the digestion of a meal? 
 A. molecules 
 B. cells 
 C. tissues 
 D. organs 
 E. populations 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


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13. Which is the simplest of all levels of organization? 
 A. atom 
 B. cell 
 C. organ 
 D. organism 
 E. population 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


14. Which level of organization reflects an individual composed of multiple organ systems? 
 A. atom 
 B. cell 
 C. organ 
 D. organism 
 E. population 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


15. Which of the following are components of molecules? 
 A. atoms 
 B. cells 
 C. organs 
 D. organisms 
 E. populations 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


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16. Many people at a wedding ceremony represent which level of organization? 
 A. cell 
 B. organ 
 C. organism 
 D. population 
 E. ecosystem 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


17. A flower on a plant represents which level of organization? 
 A. atom 
 B. cell 
 C. organ 
 D. organism 
 E. population 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


18. The phenomenon through which populations of organisms change over several generations is termed 
 A. homeostasis. 
 B. growth and development. 
 C. reproduction. 
 D. biological evolution. 
 E. organization. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


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19. Changes in ________ represent the predominant cause for biological evolution. 
 A. homeostasis 
 B. growth and development 
 C. reproduction 
 D. genetic makeup 
 E. energy 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


20. A variety of finch species within the Hawaiian Islands have acquired different types of beaks needed for utilizing specific food resources. The process by which these different species of finches came about is likely to have involved 
 A. natural selection. 
 B. evolution. 
 C. an accumulation of harmful genetic mutations. 
 D. both natural selection and evolution. 
 E. None of these choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


21. Which of the following is TRUE of a genetic mutation? 
 A. It always produces harmful effects. 
 B. It never affects protein structure or function. 
 C. It is not a mechanism through which biological evolution occurs. 
 D. It happens quite frequently in a population. 
 E. It generally produces a change in the DNA sequence of a gene. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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22. New species evolve from pre-existing species by the accumulation of 
 A. metabolic events. 
 B. genetic mutations. 
 C. proteomes. 
 D. reproductive events. 
 E. developmental events. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


23. Evolutionary change 
 A. occurs through the modification of characteristics in a preexisting population. 
 B. may involve vertical descent with mutation. 
 C. may involve horizontal gene transfer. 
 D. All of these choices are correct. 
 E. None of these choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


24. In the process of biological evolution, new species may evolve through exchange of genes from one species to another. This process is called 
 A. proteome transfer. 
 B. horizontal gene transfer. 
 C. vertical evolution. 
 D. vertical descent with mutation. 
 E. genomic sciences. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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25. The grouping or classification of species is termed 
 A. eukaryotism. 
 B. prokaryotism. 
 C. genus. 
 D. kingdom. 
 E. taxonomy. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


26. When grouping organisms, which classification is most general for a particular type of organism? 
 A. Kingdom 
 B. Phylum 
 C. Order 
 D. Family 
 E. Species 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


27. When grouping organisms, which classification is most general for a particular type of organism? 
 A. Kingdom 
 B. Phylum 
 C. Order 
 D. Family 
 E. Species 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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28. Which Kingdom of organisms is most noted for its ability to carry out photosynthesis? 
 A. Animilia 
 B. Protista 
 C. Fungi 
 D. Plantae 
 E. Bacteria 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 1.12
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


29. Biologists use nomenclature or the binomial to provide each species with a unique scientific name. Our species is called Homo sapiens. The first word refers to which taxonomical grouping? 
 A. Kingdom 
 B. Phylum 
 C. Order 
 D. Genus 
 E. Species 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


30. When considering nomenclature for scientific names, what is the difference between the two primates, Homo sapiens and Homo erectus? 
 A. One is a primate but the other is not. 
 B. They are animals of a different kingdom. 
 C. They are animals of a different order. 
 D. They are animals of a different species. 
 E. They are animals of a different genus. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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31. Which of the following is generally more complex than the others? 
 A. Archaea 
 B. Bacteria 
 C. Prokarya 
 D. Eukarya 
 E. microorganisms 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


32. The complete genetic composition of an organism is called its 
 A. proteome. 
 B. genome. 
 C. transcriptosome. 
 D. phenotype. 
 E. None of these choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


33. Which is responsible for encoding the proteins found in a cell? 
 A. genome 
 B. proteome 
 C. cytoskeleton 
 D. evolution 
 E. extracellular proteins 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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34. If a scientist were studying the interaction of different proteins in the regulation of insulin secretion from a pancreatic cell, he or she would be studying 
 A. genomics. 
 B. proteomics. 
 C. cell biology. 
 D. both genomics and proteomics. 
 E. both proteomics and cell biology. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


35. An explanation for a biological process that is substantiated by a large body of evidence is called a 
 A. hypothesis. 
 B. theory. 
 C. systems biology. 
 D. reductionism. 
 E. prediction. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.03
 Topic: General


36. Collecting data without a specific hypothesis in mind is called 
 A. reductionism. 
 B. hypothesis testing. 
 C. discovery-based science. 
 D. theoretical. 
 E. All of these choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.03
 Topic: General


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True / False Questions


37. All tissues are composed of cells. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


38. The capacity to maintain a fairly constant body temperature is a homeostatic process. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


39. A community is composed of different populations of animals and plants. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


40. A defining characteristic that distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms is the lack of cell structure in one versus the other. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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41. The modification of a limb that was used for walking in a pre-existing ancestor to one that is used as a wing for a species today is called proteomics. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


42. A bacterial infection such as pneumonia is most likely caused by organisms derived from the animal kingdom. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


43. All genetic mutations are harmful to an organism. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


44. Vertical evolution, whereby living organisms evolve from a common ancestor ("tree of life"), is the only mechanism of evolution on Earth. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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45. The effects of a genetic mutation are always limited to simply a change in DNA sequence with little consequence on the proteins expressed. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


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46. The proteome, rather than genome, is most directly responsible for the structure, function, and appearance of organisms. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.02
 Topic: General


47. Little scientific evidence is necessary when formulating a theory. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.03
 Topic: General


48. The maintenance of cell structure requires energy. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 1.01
 Topic: General


49. Discovery-based science and hypothesis testing are the two major scientific approaches that help us understand biology. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.03
 Topic: General


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Multiple Choice Questions


50. This question refers to the 5-stage process of hypothesis testing. What is the appropriate order of the stages when generating and testing a hypothesis? 
 (1) Experimentation is conducted to determine if the predictions are correct.
 (2) The hypothesis is accepted or rejected.
 (3) Observations are made regarding a natural phenomenon.
 (4) The observations lead to a hypothesis that tries to explain the phenomenon. A useful hypothesis is one that is testable because it makes specific predictions.
 (5) The data from the experiment is analyzed. 
 A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 
 B. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 
 C. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 
 D. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 
 E. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 1.03
 Topic: General


Chapter 02 Test Bank: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms, Molecules, and Water 


Multiple Choice Questions
 1. These are the smallest functional units of matter that form all chemical substances and that cannot be further broken down by ordinary chemical or physical means. 
 A. protons 
 B. neutrons 
 C. electrons 
 D. atoms 
 E. molecules 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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2. The atomic number of an atom is 
 A. the number of protons in the atom. 
 B. the number of neutrons in the atom. 
 C. the number of protons and electrons in the atom. 
 D. the number of protons and neutrons in the atom. 
 E. None of these choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


3. Which of the following represents the smallest functional unit of living organisms? 
 A. atoms 
 B. molecules 
 C. proteins 
 D. water 
 E. salt 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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4. Oxygen has an atomic mass of 16 and an atomic number of 8. 
 A. Oxygen has 16 neutrons. 
 B. Oxygen has 8 electrons. 
 C. Oxygen can form two bonds with other atoms. 
 D. Oxygen has 16 neutrons and 8 electrons. 
 E. Oxygen has 8 electrons and can form two bonds with other atoms. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


5. The nucleus of an atom is composed of 
 A. protons. 
 B. neutrons. 
 C. electrons. 
 D. protons and neutrons. 
 E. protons and electrons. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


6. Ernest Rutherford's key experiment on alpha particle bombardment of gold foil was important to the development of 
 A. detection methods for protons. 
 B. alpha particle emitters. 
 C. gold as an element. 
 D. the modern model for atomic structure. 
 E. the concept that atoms have a homogenous distribution of protons throughout the atom. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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7. If a scientist were to shoot protons through an atom, for instance like Rutherford did with gold foil, he or she would likely find that 
 A. most of the protons ed straight through the atom. 
 B. few of the protons ed straight through the atom. 
 C. most of the protons deflected or bounced back from the atom. 
 D. most of the protons would be absorbed by the atom. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


8. The first, inner-most energy shell of an atom 
 A. can have a maximum of 8 electrons. 
 B. can have a maximum of 2 electrons. 
 C. is called the 2p orbital. 
 D. is called the 1s orbital and can have a maximum of 8 electrons. 
 E. is called the 2p orbital and can have a maximum of 2 electrons. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 2.03
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


9. If carbon has an atomic mass of 12 and an atomic number of 6 then it has 
 A. 6 electrons. 
 B. 12 electrons. 
 C. 18 electrons. 
 D. as many as 6 but no more than 12. 
 E. None of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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10. Tritiated hydrogen (3H) differs from hydrogen (1H) in that 
 A. 3H has 2 more protons than 1H. 
 B. 3H has 2 more electrons than 1H. 
 C. 3H has 2 more neutrons than 1H. 
 D. 3H has the same number of neutrons as 1H. 
 E. 3H has a different electron configuration than 1H. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


11. Isotopes are different forms of the same element that 
 A. differ in their number of neutrons. 
 B. have the same numbers of protons. 
 C. are often used in medicine to track biological processes. 
 D. can be found in nature. 
 E. All the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


12. Which of the following represents an abundant element found in living organisms? 
 A. calcium. 
 B. iron. 
 C. iodine. 
 D. hydrogen. 
 E. sodium. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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13. Nitrogen has 7 electrons and can form a maximum of ________ bonds with other elements. 
 A. 1 
 B. 2 
 C. 3 
 D. 4 
 E. 5 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


14. Molecules 
 A. are derived from the chemical bonding of two or more atoms. 
 B. differ in their physical properties from the atoms from which they were derived. 
 C. are important to biological processes. 
 D. can form from the covalent bonding of two or more atoms. 
 E. All the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


15. Which of the following is NOT a molecule? 
 A. H2 
 B. H2O 
 C. CH4 
 D. O2 
 E. H 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


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16. Which of the following represents an ion? 
 A. Ca2+ 
 B. He 
 C. H2 
 D. CO2 
 E. KCl 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


17. Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in their outer most electron shells. How many bonds can form between a carbon atom and hydrogen atoms? 
 A. 0 
 B. 1 
 C. 2 
 D. 3 
 E. 4 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


18. This is formed when an atom loses an electron to another atom. 
 A. polar covalent bond 
 B. cations and anions that can form ionic bonds 
 C. covalent bond 
 D. hydrogen bond 
 E. nonpolar covalent bond 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


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19. Which of the following chemical bonds is the strongest? 
 A. hydrogen 
 B. Van der Waal forces 
 C. hydrophobic interactions 
 D. ionic 
 E. covalent 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


20. What type of bonding is likely to occur between two water molecules or strands of DNA? 
 A. covalent 
 B. ionic 
 C. hydrogen 
 D. both hydrogen and covalent 
 E. both hydrogen and ionic 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


21. Carbon and hydrogen have similar electronegativities and combine together to form hydrocarbon molecules. What type of bonds form between these atoms? 
 A. hydrogen 
 B. ionic 
 C. polar covalent 
 D. nonpolar covalent 
 E. electrostatic 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


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22. What type of bonds form from the unequal sharing of electrons? 
 A. hydrogen 
 B. ionic 
 C. polar covalent 
 D. nonpolar covalent 
 E. electrostatic 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


23. In water, MgCl2 dissociates into Mg2+ and Cl-. Based on this information what type of bond is involved in the formation of MgCl2? 
 A. hydrogen 
 B. ionic 
 C. polar covalent 
 D. nonpolar covalent 
 E. electrostatic 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


24. Which of the following is TRUE of a chemical reaction? 
 A. It requires no energy. 
 B. It rarely occurs with a catalyst present. 
 C. It changes a substance from one form to another. 
 D. It is limited to only a few types of organisms. 
 E. They are usually irreversible. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


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25. When one oxygen atom shares two pairs of electrons with another oxygen atom, O2 is formed via a(n) 
 A. single covalent bond. 
 B. double covalent bond. 
 C. triple covalent bond. 
 D. ionic bond. 
 E. hydrogen bond. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


26. Which of the following is LEAST hydrophilic? 
 A. Na+ 
 B. HCO3- 
 C. oil 
 D. amphipathic molecules 
 E. CO2Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.Error! Hyperlink reference not valid. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


27. Amphipathic molecules 
 A. possess only hydrophilic properties. 
 B. possess only hydrophobic properties. 
 C. possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties. 
 D. possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties. 
 E. Tend not to interact with other molecules. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


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28. For water to vaporize 
 A. energy must be supplied. 
 B. energy must be released. 
 C. hydrogen bonds are broken. 
 D. both energy must be supplied and hydrogen bonds broken. 
 E. both energy must be released and hydrogen bonds broken. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


29. The molarity of a solution is 
 A. a measure of solute concentration. 
 B. the weight of a solid substance. 
 C. often expressed as grams per unit volume. 
 D. reflects a measure of the amount of oil dissolved in a water. 
 E. a scientific term for determining the solubility of a substance in water. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


30. Based on the colligative properties of water, what would happen if one were to add a solute to water? 
 A. The freezing point of water would decrease. 
 B. The freezing point of water would increase. 
 C. The boiling point of water would increase. 
 D. Both the freezing point of water would decrease and the boiling point of water would increase. 
 E. Nothing would change with respect to the freezing point or boiling point of water. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


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31. Which of the following is not true of water? 
 A. It is polar. 
 B. It has a high heat of vaporization. 
 C. It has cohesive properties. 
 D. Its evaporation helps regulate body temperature. 
 E. It is a relatively poor solvent. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


32. If orange juice has a pH of 4 then 
 A. the H+ concentration is 4. 
 B. it is an acidic solution. 
 C. it is an alkaline solution. 
 D. it is an acidic solution with a H+ concentration of 4. 
 E. None of these choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


33. pH buffers 
 A. minimize fluctuations in the pH of solutions. 
 B. are usually weak acids and bases. 
 C. are common in biological fluids. 
 D. limit major shifts in the amount of H+ and OH- in solution. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


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34. If one were to add a strong acid like HCl to an aqueous solution, which would result? 
 A. H+ would be released into solution. 
 B. The pH would increase. 
 C. The pH would decrease. 
 D. Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would increase. 
 E. Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would decrease. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


35. Which is true about a pH buffer? 
 A. It increases the amount of H+ in an acidic solution. 
 B. It reduces the amount of H+ in an acidic solution. 
 C. It reduces the amount of H+ in an alkaline solution. 
 D. It increases the amount of OH- ions in an alkaline solution. 
 E. It reduces the amount of OH- in an acidic solution. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


36. Considering solutions with the following pH, which is alkaline? 
 A. 8 
 B. 7 
 C. 6 
 D. 5 
 E. All are alkaline. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


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37. Which of the following is TRUE when comparing solutions with a pH of 6 and a pH of 8? 
 A. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. 
 B. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. 
 C. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. 
 D. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. 
 E. The hydrogen ion concentration does not appreciably differ between a solution with a pH of 8 versus that with a pH of 6. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.03





True / False Questions
 38. One gram of hydrogen, which has an atomic mass of 1, would have fewer atoms than 1 gram of carbon that has an atomic mass of 12. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


39. Isotopes are different forms of the same element. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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40. Sulfur 35 (35S) is an isotope of 32S. These elements differ in their number of neutrons. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.01
 Topic: Chemistry


41. Helium is an inert gas that rarely reacts with other elements because it has the maximum number of valence electrons in its outer shell. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


42. If lithium has an atomic number of 3 then it will have 1 valence electron. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


43. The electronegativity of an atom is a measure of its ability to attract electrons to its outer shell from another atom. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


44. Table salt forms from sodium and chloride via hydrogen bonding. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


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45. Molecules are generally rigid structures and rarely change shape. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.02
 Topic: Chemistry


46. The presence of salt helps prevent oceans from freezing. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


47. A dehydration reaction that builds larger molecules from smaller units requires the addition of a water molecule. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


48. The hydroxyl (OH-) concentration of a solution with a pH of 8 would be 10-6 molar. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


49. Most enzymes or bioactive molecules work effectively within a broad range of pH. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


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50. Buffers minimize fluctuations in the pH of a solution. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 2.03
 Topic: Chemistry


Chapter 03 Test Bank: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules 


Multiple Choice Questions
 1. Which of the following is an important feature of carbon and that makes life possible? 
 A. Carbon can form a maximum of 8 covalent bonds. 
 B. Carbon can form a maximum of 6 covalent bonds. 
 C. Carbon can form a maximum of 4 covalent bonds. 
 D. Carbon can form a maximum of 2 covalent bonds. 
 E. None of the choices are possible for carbon. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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2. Which of the following are important features of carbon and the diversity of organic molecules? 
 A. Carbon can form up to 4 covalent bonds with other elements. 
 B. Carbon bonds may occur in multiple different configurations such as linear, ringlike, and highly branched. 
 C. Carbon can form both polar and nonpolar covalent bonds with various elements. 
 D. Carbon bonds are stable at the range of temperatures associated with life. 
 E. All the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


3. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar? 
 A. C2H5COOH 
 B. C2H6 
 C. R-NH2 
 D. C3H7OH 
 E. C5H10O5 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


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4. Which element(s) is common to all organic molecules? 
 A. oxygen 
 B. nitrogen 
 C. hydrogen 
 D. carbon 
 E. both nitrogen and carbon 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


5. Two molecules with identical molecular formulas but that have different structures are called 
 A. polymers. 
 B. isomers. 
 C. carboyhydrates. 
 D. hydrocarbons. 
 E. ring structures. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


6. Which of the following has identical molecular formulas but different structures and characteristics? 
 A. isomers 
 B. sterioisomers 
 C. enantiomers 
 D. isomers, but not sterioisomers 
 E. isomers, sterioisomers, and enantiomers 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 3.04
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!37

7. Organic molecules with identical molecular formulas and that are structurally mirror images of each other are most specifically referred to as 
 A. polymers. 
 B. mimics. 
 C. enantiomers. 
 D. hydrocarbon rings. 
 E. saturated fatty acids. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 3.04
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


8. Which of the molecules is polar and acts like a base? 
 A. R-NH2 
 B. R-CO-R 
 C. R-OH 
 D. R-PO4 
 E. R-SH 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


9. Which functional group characterizes alcohols? 
 A. NH2 
 B. COOH 
 C. PO4 
 D. SH 
 E. OH 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!38

10. Which functional group forms covalent bonds and contributes to tertiary structure of proteins? 
 A. NH2 
 B. COOH 
 C. PO4 
 D. SH 
 E. OH 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


11. Fuels such as gasoline are nonpolar and high in energy because they are largely composed of 
 A. sulfates. 
 B. hydrocarbons. 
 C. carboxylic acids. 
 D. amines. 
 E. carbonyls. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


12. Which of the following macromolecules are polymers? 
 A. lipids 
 B. carboyhydrates 
 C. nucleic acids 
 D. proteins 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.02
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!39

13. All are true about a dehydration reaction EXCEPT which of the following? 
 A. Results in removal of a water molecule. 
 B. Essential for the breakdown of complex molecules to simple ones. 
 C. Essential to the formation of polymers. 
 D. Essential for the formation of glycogen from glucose monomers. 
 E. Essential for the formation of triglycerides (fat) from glycerol and fatty acids. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Figure: 3.05
 Section: 3.02
 Topic: Chemistry


14. Glycogen is to animal cells as ________ is to plant cells. 
 A. lipid 
 B. cellulose 
 C. starch 
 D. protein 
 E. sugar 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.03
 Topic: Chemistry


15. A monomer is to a polymer, as glucose is to 
 A. lipids. 
 B. carboyhydrates. 
 C. nucleic acids. 
 D. proteins. 
 E. None of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 3.03
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!40

16. A disaccharide, such as maltose, consists of two molecules of glucose linked by what type of bond? 
 A. phosphodiester 
 B. glycosidic 
 C. steroid 
 D. peptide 
 E. None of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 3.07
 Section: 3.03
 Topic: Chemistry


17. Amongst all others, which is the largest macromolecule? 
 A. monosaccharide 
 B. disaccharide 
 C. polysaccharide 
 D. glucose 
 E. sucrose 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.03
 Topic: Chemistry


18. Which of these is NOT a lipid? 
 A. phospholipid 
 B. cholesterol 
 C. steroids 
 D. glycogen 
 E. wax and oils 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!41

19. Which of the following is NOT a property of fat or of fatty acids? 
 A. They are soluble in water. 
 B. The source of variation in fat molecules is the fatty acid composition. 
 C. Fatty acids can vary in number and location of C-C double bonds. 
 D. Fatty acids may vary in length. 
 E. Fats can be liquid or solid at room temperature, depending on fatty acid composition. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


20. Which is TRUE about amphipathic molecules when placed in an aqueous solution? 
 A. The interior portion is composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbon chains. 
 B. The outside portion is composed of hydrophilic head groups. 
 C. The interior portion is composed of hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains. 
 D. The interior portion of the micelle is composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbon chains and the outside portion of hydrophilic head groups. 
 E. The interior portion is composed of hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains and the outside portion of hydrophilic head groups. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 3.12
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


21. This class of macromolecules serves as important energy stores and is a major component of plasma membranes. 
 A. lipids 
 B. carbohydrates 
 C. nucleic acids 
 D. proteins 
 E. ions 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!42

22. Amphipathic molecules 
 A. possess only hydrophilic properties. 
 B. possess only hydrophobic properties. 
 C. possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties. 
 D. possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties. 
 E. tend not to interact with other molecules. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


23. Which of the molecules below is NOT a subunit for building macromolecules? 
 A. glucose 
 B. amino acids 
 C. steroid 
 D. fatty acid 
 E. nucleotides 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


24. Which of these is rich in unsaturated fats? 
 A. a fat that is solid at room temperature 
 B. butter 
 C. beef fat 
 D. bacon grease 
 E. olive oil 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!43

25. What is the main difference between a fat (triglyceride) and a phospholipid? 
 A. A fat has 4 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a phospholipid has 3. 
 B. A fat has 3 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a phospholipid has 4. 
 C. A phospholipid has 2 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a fat has 3. 
 D. A phospholipid has 3 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a fat has 2. 
 E. None of the above are true. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 3.09
 Figure: 3.12
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


26. Which of the following macromolecules is composed of amino acids? 
 A. lipids 
 B. carboyhydrates 
 C. nucleic acids 
 D. proteins 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


27. With regard to protein structure, which level determines all others? 
 A. primary 
 B. secondary 
 C. tertiary 
 D. quaternary 
 E. hepternary 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!44

28. What level of protein structure, characterized by coils and folds, results from hydrogen bonding between carboxyl and amino groups of the polypeptide chain? 
 A. primary 
 B. secondary 
 C. tertiary 
 D. quaternary 
 E. both secondary and quaternary 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 3.16
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


29. Acetic acid gives vinegar its sour taste. Which functional group has acidic properties and would release hydrogen ions in an aqueous (water) solution? 
 A. -OH 
 B. -NH2 
 C. -SH 
 D. -COOH 
 E. -CO 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


30. Which portion of an amino acid is unique among the different amino acids? 
 A. carboxyl 
 B. amino 
 C. hydrocarbon 
 D. the side chain or R-group 
 E. peptide bonding 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 3.14
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!45

31. Which macromolecule has the highest diversity of functions? 
 A. carbohydrates 
 B. proteins 
 C. nucleic acids 
 D. lipids 
 E. glycolipids 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


32. The tertiary structure of a protein is dependent on 
 A. the side chain composition of each amino acid within the protein. 
 B. hydrogen bonding between the carboxyl and amino groups within the polypeptide chain. 
 C. the interactions of multiple polypeptide chains that make up a functional protein. 
 D. the way in which the peptide bond forms. 
 E. the degree through which the dehydration reaction occurs. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


33. Sickle cell anemia is a condition in which red blood cells of patients exhibit a characteristic "sickle" shape. This arises from a mutation or change in one of the amino acids found in hemoglobin. Knowing this, what level of protein structure is most directly affected by this single amino acid mutation? 
 A. primary 
 B. secondary 
 C. tertiary 
 D. quaternary 
 E. None of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!46

34. Which is true of the nucleotide base composition within the DNA double helix? 
 A. G=A 
 B. T=C 
 C. T+A=C+G 
 D. T+G=A+C 
 E. A=U 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.06
 Topic: Chemistry


35. If a specimen contains 30% adenine in its DNA then how much cytosine will there be? 
 A. 40% 
 B. 30% 
 C. 20% 
 D. 10% 
 E. Cannot be determined. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 3.06
 Topic: Chemistry


36. Which of the following statements BEST summarizes structural differences between DNA and RNA? 
 A. RNA is a protein, while DNA is a nucleic acid. 
 B. RNA is a polymer, but DNA is not. 
 C. DNA contains a different sugar than RNA. 
 D. RNA is a double helix, but DNA is not. 
 E. All the bases in DNA differ from those in RNA. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 3.06
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!47

37. An amino acid is to a protein as a ________ is to a nucleic acid. 
 A. glucose 
 B. glycerol 
 C. nucleotide 
 D. fatty acid 
 E. cellulose 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.06
 Topic: Chemistry


38. Which is true of the base pairing seen between two DNA strands? 
 A. Adenine bonds with guanine. 
 B. Guanine bonds with thymine. 
 C. Thymine bonds with cytosine. 
 D. Cytosine bonds with guanine 
 E. Guanine bonds with thymine. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 3.24
 Section: 3.06
 Topic: Chemistry





True / False Questions
 39. Friedrich Wöhler refuted the scientific concept of vitalism during the early 1800s by proving that organic molecules could be synthesized outside a living organism. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!48

40. Since carbon and hydrogen share similar electronegativities they will form nonpolar molecules when combined. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.01
 Topic: Chemistry


41. Macromolecules such as lipids and carbohydrates are produced from simple subunits through condensation reactions. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.02
 Topic: Chemistry


42. The sole function of carbohydrates is to serve as energy stores. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.03
 Topic: Chemistry


43. If sucrose is composed of both glucose and fructose then sucrose must be a monosaccharide. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.03
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!49

44. Lipids and carbohydrates have similar functions insofar as they can represent a form of energy store in animals. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!50

45. Saturated fats are composed of fatty acids with several double bonded carbons. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 3.10
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


46. When a food label reads polyunsaturated fats, this refers to fatty acids composed of multiple double bonded carbons. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 3.04
 Topic: Chemistry


47. Proteins can have separate domains with distinct structures and function. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


48. The primary structure of a protein ultimately determines its three-dimensional structure. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 3.17
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


49. All amino acids within a protein are either polar charged or polar uncharged. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 3.14
 Section: 3.05
 Topic: Chemistry


1-!51

1-!52

50. The four nucleotide bases found in DNA are identical to those in RNA. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 3.06
 Topic: Chemistry


Chapter 04 Test Bank: General Features of Cells 


Multiple Choice Questions


1. Which of the following are principles of the cell theory or cell doctrine? 
 A. All living things are composed of one or more cells. 
 B. Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms. 
 C. New cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division. 
 D. Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms and new cells form from pre-existing cells by cell division. 
 E. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells, cells are the smallest units of life, and new cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


2. Which two cell scientists are credited with the formulation of the cell theory, also known as the cell doctrine? 
 A. Watson and Crick 
 B. Schleiden and Schwann 
 C. Schleiden and Hooke 
 D. Schwann and Jenner 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!53

3. This is a tool that enables researchers to study the structure and function of cells. 
 A. magnifying glass 
 B. microscope 
 C. tunneling assay 
 D. digital recording 
 E. differential centrifugation 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!54

4. With which type of microscopy would one observe three-dimensional structure? 
 A. fluorescence microscopy 
 B. standard light microscopy 
 C. confocal microscopy 
 D. differential-interference light microscopy 
 E. transmission electron microscopy 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


5. Which of the following reflects a primary difference between transmission and scanning electron microscopy? 
 A. Transmission electron microscopy has high resolution, but scanning electron microscopy does not. 
 B. Transmission electron microscopy shows contrast, but scanning electron microscopy does not. 
 C. Transmission electron microscopy has much higher magnification than scanning electron microscopy. 
 D. Transmission electron microscopy shows two-dimensional ultrastructure, while the scanning electron microscopy shows three-dimensional structure. 
 E. Transmission electron microscopy uses light as an illumination source, while scanning electron microscopy uses electron beams as an illumination source. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!55

6. Which of the following type of microscopy would be most effective in visualizing the fine structure of viruses and cytoskeletal filaments 10–25 nanometers in diameter? 
 A. standard light microscopy 
 B. phase-contrast light microscopy 
 C. transmission electron microscopy 
 D. darkfield light microscopy 
 E. differential-interference microscopy 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 4.01
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!56

7. Among those listed, which type of microscopy would provide the highest resolution? 
 A. phase-contrast light microscopy 
 B. scanning electron microscopy 
 C. Nomarski differential-interference light microscopy 
 D. confocal microscopy 
 E. fluorescence microscopy 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


8. Prokaryotes 
 A. lack a true nucleus. 
 B. lack true DNA. 
 C. use the cell membrane rather than ribosomes for making proteins. 
 D. contain numerous organelles. 
 E. are relatively benign cells incapable of harming organisms. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


9. Which of the following structures distinguishes plant cells from animal cells? 
 A. chloroplast 
 B. nucleus 
 C. plasma membrane 
 D. golgi apparatus 
 E. mitochondria 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!57

10. Which of the following is NOT true of prokaryotes? 
 A. They lack a membrane-bound nucleus. 
 B. DNA is located within the cytosol. 
 C. They have a simpler structure relative to eukaryotes. 
 D. They possess membrane-bound organelles. 
 E. They are relatively small compared with eukaryotes. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


11. The cell wall is a common feature to 
 A. prokaryotic cells only. 
 B. plant cells only. 
 C. animal cells only. 
 D. prokaryotic and plant cells. 
 E. prokaryotic, plant, and animal cells. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


12. Plasma membranes are a feature of 
 A. all cells. 
 B. prokaryotic cells only. 
 C. eukaryotic cells only. 
 D. plant cells only. 
 E. animal cells only. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!58

13. During a period of low water availability, which prokaryotic structure would protect a cell from dessication (drying out)? 
 A. pili 
 B. plasma membrane 
 C. nucleus 
 D. cell wall 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


14. The nucleus is to eukaryotes as the ________ is to prokaryotes. 
 A. pili 
 B. glycocalyx 
 C. ribosome 
 D. nucleoid 
 E. cell wall 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


15. Which of the following might for the general structural and functional differences between a nerve and smooth muscle cell within an individual? 
 A. The proteome differs between muscle and nerve cells. 
 B. The genome (DNA) differs between muscle and nerve cells. 
 C. The relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells. 
 D. The proteome and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells. 
 E. The genome (DNA) and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!59

16. FtsZ, MreB, and CreS proteins regulate the shape and structure of bacterial (prokaryotes) cells. These proteins are homologous to what structure in eukaryotes? 
 A. extracellular matrix 
 B. DNA processing enzymes 
 C. cytoskeleton 
 D. organelles 
 E. cell wall 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


17. Which of the statements about the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) is INCORRECT? 
 A. Translation is the process of protein synthesis. 
 B. Proteins are synthesized in the cytosol. 
 C. The synthesis of proteins is a catabolic process. 
 D. The synthesis of proteins requires ribosomes. 
 E. Proteins are synthesized from mRNA template. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


18. Which cytoskeletal structures represent a highly diverse group of tension-bearing fibers important to the maintenance of cell shape? 
 A. microtubules 
 B. intermediate filaments 
 C. microfilaments 
 D. centrioles 
 E. pili 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!60

19. The cytoskeleton and motor proteins are important for which of the following processes? 
 A. cell motility 
 B. whipping motion of sperm flagella 
 C. movement of amoeba by lamellopodia 
 D. muscle contraction 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


20. Which of the following is NOT true for cilia or flagella? 
 A. They are involved in cell motility. 
 B. They require ATP to work. 
 C. They are composed of microfilaments. 
 D. They require motor proteins to work. 
 E. They are composed of an internal structure called the axoneme. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


21. This cytoskeletal structure is composed of actin and regulates cell shape, cell movement, and muscle contraction. 
 A. microfilaments 
 B. intermediate filaments 
 C. microtubules 
 D. both microfilaments and intermediate filaments 
 E. both microfilaments and microtubules 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!61

22. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that produce which of the following molecules? 
 A. steroids 
 B. lipids 
 C. glucose 
 D. starches 
 E. proteins 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


23. In animal cells microtubules grow from which structure? 
 A. origination centers in the plasma membrane 
 B. outer membrane of the nuclear envelope 
 C. centrosomes containing centrioles 
 D. dimerization centers located throughout the cytosol 
 E. the tips of the chromosomes 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


24. This specialized structure stores pigments, water, inorganic ions and maintains turgor pressure. 
 A. Golgi apparatus 
 B. vacuole 
 C. peroxisomes 
 D. vesicles 
 E. lysosomes 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!62

25. Which would be the most accurate endomembrane route through which a protein is secreted from a cell? 
 A. Golgi apparatus→lysosome→vesicles→plasma membrane 
 B. plasmid→plasma membrane→nuclear envelope→smooth endoplasmic reticulum 
 C. nuclear envelope→vesicles→Golgi apparatus→plasma membrane 
 D. rough endoplasmic reticulum→lysosomes→vesicles→cell membrane 
 E. rough endoplasmic reticulum→ Golgi apparatus→vesicles →plasma membrane 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


26. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? 
 A. lysosome-protein synthesis 
 B. cytoskeleton-microfilaments 
 C. nucleus-DNA replication 
 D. cell membrane-lipid bilayer 
 E. Golgi apparatus-modification, processing, and sorting of macromolecules 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


27. Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is NOT correct? 
 A. chloroplast: photosynthesis 
 B. cell wall: , protection 
 C. mitochondria: formation of ATP 
 D. ribosomes: site of protein synthesis 
 E. Golgi apparatus: breakdown of macromolecules 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!63

28. This organelle is responsible for the biosynthesis of proteins that are destined for secretion by the cell. 
 A. Golgi apparatus 
 B. lysosome 
 C. vesicles 
 D. endoplasmic reticulum 
 E. mitochondria 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


29. Due to the lack of an enzyme to break down lipids, excess accumulation of lipids in the brain leads to a human disease called Tay Sachs syndrome. Which organelle is likely to be the one that lacks the proper enzyme needed for lipid breakdown? 
 A. lysosome 
 B. tonoplast 
 C. mitochondrion 
 D. Golgi apparatus 
 E. peroxisome 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


30. This organelle is important for the detoxification of alcohol in the liver. 
 A. lysosome 
 B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum 
 C. mitochondrion 
 D. Golgi apparatus 
 E. peroxisome 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!64

31. The gonads produce steroids. Which organelle would likely be present in this tissue? 
 A. ribosome 
 B. lysosome 
 C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum 
 D. mitochondria 
 E. contractile vacuole 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


32. Which of the following is INCORRECT about ribosome biosynthesis and structure? 
 A. Ribosomes are composed of two subunits. 
 B. Ribosomes are composed of RNA. 
 C. All components of the ribosome are produced in the cytosol. 
 D. Ribosomal proteins are produced in the cytosol. 
 E. Ribosomes are composed of proteins. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


33. Which of the following is not a constituent of the nucleus? 
 A. pores 
 B. envelope or membrane 
 C. chromosomes 
 D. chromatin 
 E. protein modifying enzymes 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!65

34. Lysosomes digest intracellular debris, such as organelles, through the process of ____________. 
 A. endocytosis 
 B. phagocytosis 
 C. autophagy 
 D. pinocytosis 
 E. excocytosis 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


35. In eukaryotes, which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane? 
 A. barrier for separating extracellular and intracellular environments of a cell 
 B. cell-to-cell adhesion 
 C. selective transport 
 D. ATP synthesis 
 E. cell signaling 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


36. Which of the following statements about peroxisomes is INCORRECT? 
 A. They were once viewed as semiautonomous. 
 B. They assist in detoxifying molecules. 
 C. They possess a single membrane. 
 D. They possess their own DNA. 
 E. They possess an enzyme that prevents accumulation of hydrogen peroxide and free radicals. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!66

37. Which of the following organelles can grow and divide to reproduce themselves? 
 A. mitochondria only 
 B. chloroplasts only 
 C. peroxisomes only 
 D. both mitochondria and chloroplasts 
 E. Mithochondria, chloroplasts, and lysosomes can reproduce themselves. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.05
 Topic: Cells


38. Cyanide binds and impairs one of the molecules involved in the production of ATP. Which organelle does cyanide act upon? 
 A. peroxisome 
 B. lysosome 
 C. ribosome 
 D. endoplasmic reticulum 
 E. mitochondria 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 4.05
 Topic: Cells


39. Tissues that are metabolically active and utilize large amounts of energy would be rich in 
 A. ribosomes. 
 B. lysosomes. 
 C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. 
 D. mitochondria. 
 E. contractile vacuoles. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.05
 Topic: Cells


1-!67

40. Which of the following plant organelle is a colorless plastid that stores starch in roots? 
 A. thyloplasts 
 B. chloroplasts 
 C. chromoplasts 
 D. amyloplasts 
 E. both chloroplasts and chromoplasts 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.05
 Topic: Cells


41. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of both mitochondrial and chloroplast genomes? 
 A. Composed of a double stranded chromosome. 
 B. Composed of a single circular chromosome 
 C. Has a small genome. 
 D. Chloroplast genome is larger than the mitochondrial genome.


 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.05
 Topic: Cells


42. Which of the following is NOT a function of a signal recognition particle (SRP)? 
 A. Binds to a receptor in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). 
 B. Docks the ribosome over a channel protein. 
 C. Helps a vesicle bud from the endoplasmic membrane (ER) 
 D. Recognizes the endoplasmic membrane (ER) signal sequence 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.06
 Topic: Cells





True / False Questions


1-!68

43. The cell is the basic structural/functional unit common to all living organisms. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


44. Resolution, contrast, and magnification are three important parameters in microscopy. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


45. Fluorescence microscopy enables researchers to label and visualize a particular type of cellular protein or organelle. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.01
 Topic: Cells


46. The flagellum is used for cell motility in eukaryotes only. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


47. All plant cells contain centrioles. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 4.07
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!69

1-!70

48. The presence of a cell wall and chloroplasts are two features that distinguish a plant cell from an animal cell. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


49. The genome rather than proteome most specifically determines how a cell looks and functions. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


50. The glycocalyx is a protective coating that prevents bacteria from dehydration and potential destruction by the host organism. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.02
 Topic: Cells


51. Myosin is a motor protein that walks along intermediate filaments. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


52. The flagellum is composed of a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules called the axoneme. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!71

1-!72

53. The Golgi apparatus is much like a warehouse; it processes proteins and sorts them for delivery to certain parts of the cell. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


54. Materials move in and out of the nucleus via endocytosis and exocytosis. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


55. Both lysosomes and peroxisomes are important for detoxifying substances in the cell. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.04
 Topic: Cells


56. Photosynthesis in plants occurs in chloroplasts. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.05
 Topic: Cells


57. The Endosymbiosis Theory best describes the origins of peroxisomes in eukaryotes. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 4.05
 Topic: Cells


1-!73

58. In eukaryotes, most proteins contain short stretches of amino acid sequences called sorting signals which direct the protein to the correct cellular location. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.06
 Topic: Cells


59. The first step in cotranslational sorting is the peptide is directed to the endoplasmic reticulum. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.06
 Topic: Cells


60. Chaperones keep proteins destined for the mitochondrial matrix in their three dimensional active structure. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 4.06
 Topic: Cells


Chapter 05 Test Bank: Membrane Structure, Synthesis, and Transport 


Multiple Choice Questions


1-!74

1. Which of the following organisms is likely to contain biomembranes? 
 A. plants 
 B. animals 
 C. prokaryotes 
 D. plants and animals 
 E. All living organisms contain biomembranes. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


2. Cellular membranes are 
 A. fluid. 
 B. solely composed of lipids. 
 C. composed of a single layer of amphipathic molecules. 
 D. selective to the transport of gases and small molecules only. 
 E. characteristic of eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


3. Which of the following is the major lipid found in membranes? 
 A. steroids 
 B. cholesterol 
 C. triglycerides 
 D. phospholipids 
 E. saturated fatty acids 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!75

4. Which of the following is NOT true of the plasma membrane? 
 A. It is composed of an extracellular and intracellular layer of phospholipids. 
 B. The extracellular and intracellular layers or leaflets are highly symmetrical. 
 C. The membrane contains peripheral proteins. 
 D. Integral proteins span through the membrane. 
 E. The membrane contains glycolipids and glycoproteins. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


5. Which of the following statements about plasma membranes is INCORRECT? 
 A. They are composed of phospholipids. 
 B. They have both integral and peripheral proteins. 
 C. They are relatively rigid structures. 
 D. They are composed of two leaflets of phospholipids. 
 E. They function to separate the extracellular and intracellular environment. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


6. Scientists unearth a Wooly Mammoth from the Siberian Ice Sheath and discover that a eukaryotic "amoeba"-like cell is still alive. Which component of the cell membrane might contribute to maintaining the fluidity of plasma membranes under freezing conditions? 
 A. peripheral proteins 
 B. high levels of long fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer 
 C. high levels of unsaturated fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer 
 D. absence of cholesterol 
 E. high levels of saturated fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!76

7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about biomembranes? 
 A. The phospholipid tails interact with water. 
 B. The phospholipid head groups are repelled by water. 
 C. Electron microscopy indicates the membrane looks like train tracks with two light lines of lipids separated by a dark line containing proteins. 
 D. The membrane is composed of two protein layers separated by a lipid layer. 
 E. Membrane proteins are globular, and some span the phospholipid bilayer and project from both sides of the membrane. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


8. A scientist produces an artificial membrane from phospholipids and notices that oxygen, but not glucose readily moves through the membrane. What might for the inability of glucose to move through the artificial membrane? 
 A. The artificial membrane lacked a protein needed for glucose transport. 
 B. The artificial membrane lacked the appropriate types of phospholipids for glucose transport. 
 C. Oxygen readily es through the membrane, so glucose should have as well. 
 D. The membrane lacked an adequate amount of amphipathic molecules for glucose transport. 
 E. Thermodynamics does not allow glucose to through membranes produced either artificially or from living organisms. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


9. Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma membranes? 
 A. glycosylated proteins 
 B. phospholipids 
 C. glycolipids 
 D. glycosylated nucleic acids 
 E. cholesterol 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!77

1-!78

10. Around what percentage of all genes encode membrane proteins? 
 A. 0% 
 B. 10% 
 C. 25% 
 D. 50% 
 E. 75% 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


11. Which of the following is NOT a function of cellular membranes? 
 A. selective uptake and export of ions and molecules 
 B. cell compartmentalization 
 C. cell signaling 
 D. maintenance of cell shape 
 E. cell adhesion 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


12. Which of the following statements is TRUE of membrane phospholipids? 
 A. The hydrophilic head groups face the interior portion of the membrane. 
 B. The hydrophobic tail groups face the exterior portion of the membrane. 
 C. They spontaneously flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other. 
 D. They freely move laterally within the membrane. 
 E. They rarely flip-flop across or move laterally within the membrane. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!79

13. Phospholipids and ________ are the major components of cell membranes. 
 A. glycolipids 
 B. cholesterol 
 C. glucose transporters 
 D. glycocalyx 
 E. proteins 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


14. Cell surface molecules are labeled with a fluorescent tag and then a portion of them are bleached with a laser beam. What would one observe after the cell is incubated for a few minutes? 
 A. The bleached molecules would disappear into the cell. 
 B. The bleached molecules would diffuse laterally through the membrane and intermix with unbleached molecules. 
 C. The bleached molecules would remain in the spot where bleaching occurred. 
 D. All the bleached molecules would flip-flop across the cell membrane. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


15. The following affect membrane fluidity EXCEPT 
 A. glycoprotein composition. 
 B. cholesterol. 
 C. phospholipid composition. 
 D. the length of the phospholipid fatty acyl tail. 
 E. the relative amounts of phospholipids containing saturated or unsaturated fatty acyl tails. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!80

16. Which of the following is TRUE of phospholipids that flip-flop across the lipid bilayer? 
 A. The process requires energy. 
 B. The process occurs spontaneously, requiring no energy. 
 C. The process requires an enzyme called flippase. 
 D. The process requires energy and the flippase enzyme. 
 E. The process occurs spontaneously and requires the flippase enzyme. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


17. Cellular membranes are mosaic and 
 A. fluid. 
 B. rigid. 
 C. symmetrical. 
 D. highly permeable to large molecules. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


18. How might a plant cell compensate for the excessive membrane fluidity that occurs during prolonged exposures to elevated temperature? 
 A. Reduce membrane cholesterol content. 
 B. Alter the lipid composition to have longer fatty acyl tails and fewer double bonds. 
 C. Alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails and more double bonds. 
 D. Alter the lipid composition to have shorter and more unsaturated fatty acyl tails. 
 E. Reduce cholesterol content and alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!81

19. Glycosylated proteins and lipids within the plasma membrane are important for 
 A. cell recognition. 
 B. cell protection. 
 C. cell energy storage. 
 D. cell recognition and protection. 
 E. cell protection and energy storage. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


20. Which of the following is important for allowing large, charged molecules to through the membrane? 
 A. peripheral proteins 
 B. cholesterol 
 C. glycosylated lipids 
 D. transmembrane proteins 
 E. carbohydrate channels 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


21. Placing celery sticks in fresh water will make them more turgid and harder. This is because 
 A. the celery is hypotonic to fresh water. 
 B. the celery is hypertonic to fresh water. 
 C. the celery is isotonic to fresh water. 
 D. water moves from the celery sticks into fresh water. 
 E. None of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 5.15
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!82

22. Of the following molecules, which es through a lipid bilayer most readily? 
 A. carbon dioxide 
 B. glucose 
 C. K+ 
 D. arginine 
 E. RNA 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


23. Which of the following molecules would you predict moves through a lipid bilayer most rapidly? 
 A. C6H12O6 
 B. CH3OH 
 C. C2H5OH 
 D. C4H10 
 E. NH2SO2CH3 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


24. Animal cells are permeable to water and urea but NOT to sucrose. The inside of a cell contains 1 M sucrose and 1 M urea and the outside 1 M sucrose and 2 M urea. The solution inside with respect to outside the cell is 
 A. hypotonic. 
 B. turgid. 
 C. isotonic. 
 D. saturated. 
 E. hypertonic. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!83

25. Animal cells are permeable to water and urea but NOT to sucrose. Initially, the inside of a cell contains 1 M sucrose and 1 M urea and the outside 1 M sucrose and 2 M urea. After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed? 
 A. The molarity of urea would be higher outside than inside the cell. 
 B. The molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell. 
 C. Water would move out of the cell causing the cell to shrivel. 
 D. The molarity of urea would be higher outside the cell and the molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell. 
 E. The molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell and water would move out of the cell causing the cell to shrivel. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


26. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about active transport? 
 A. It requires energy. 
 B. It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration. 
 C. It requires integral proteins. 
 D. It is necessary to maintain solute gradients across a membrane. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


27. Which of the following is NOT true of ive diffusion? 
 A. ive diffusion is the process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. 
 B. ive diffusion is a spontaneous process. 
 C. ive diffusion requires the presence of a transmembrane protein. 
 D. ive diffusion will occur so long as the membrane is freely permeable to the solute. 
 E. ive diffusion requires no energy. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!84

1-!85

28. Following a meal glucose must move from the gut lumen where there is a high glucose concentration into the intestinal cell where there is a relatively low level of glucose. This movement is called 
 A. ive diffusion. 
 B. facilitated diffusion. 
 C. active transport. 
 D. endocytosis. 
 E. exocytosis. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


29. The pressure required to stop water from moving across the membrane by osmosis is called 
 A. transport pressure. 
 B. crenation pressure. 
 C. atmospheric pressure. 
 D. osmotic pressure. 
 E. mechanical pressure. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


30. Water diffuses through certain organs such as the kidneys and bladder much faster than would occur by ive diffusion through a lipid bilayer alone. What s for this more rapid rate of water transport in these organs? 
 A. The composition of lipids changes to promote water transport. 
 B. Presence of aquaporin channels for facilitated diffusion of water. 
 C. Presence of a water pump. 
 D. Presence of an ATP-driven enzyme for water transport. 
 E. The presence of molecules that bind water and change its membrane permeability properties. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!86

1-!87

31. The movement of sucrose and H+ into the cell by a common membrane protein reflects transport through a 
 A. voltage-gated channel. 
 B. mechanosensitive channel. 
 C. uniporter. 
 D. symporter. 
 E. antiporter. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


32. The statements about transport of Ca2+ from the cytosol (low Ca2+ concentration) into the endoplasmic reticulum (high Ca2+ concentration) are true EXCEPT which of the following? 
 A. Calcium movement involves the use of a pump. 
 B. Calcium movement involves active transport. 
 C. Calcium movement occurs by facilitated diffusion using a transporter protein. 
 D. Calcium movement requires energy. 
 E. Calcium movement occurs through a transmembrane protein. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


33. Acetylcholine binds this membrane protein, which subsequently opens to allow sodium to enter the cell. Acetylcholine exerts its effect on what type of transport protein? 
 A. ligand-gated channel 
 B. voltage-gated channel 
 C. mechanosensitive-gated channels 
 D. regulatory protein-gated channels 
 E. stretch-sensitive gated channels 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!88

34. Sodium concentrations are higher outside and glucose concentrations are higher inside the cell. Using the same membrane protein for Na+ and glucose transport, what is it called when a Na+ electrochemical gradient is used to drive glucose transport into the cell against its concentration gradient? 
 A. primary active transport 
 B. secondary active transport 
 C. primary facilitated diffusion 
 D. secondary facilitated diffusion 
 E. ive diffusion 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


35. ________ bind two or more ions or molecules and transport them in opposite directions across a membrane. 
 A. uniporters 
 B. symporters 
 C. antiporters 
 D. dual transporters 
 E. channel pumps 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 5.23
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


36. Which of the following statement about the plasma membrane Na+/K+-ATPase pump is INCORRECT? 
 A. It is used to generate sodium and potassium gradients across the membrane. 
 B. It is an electrogenic pump. 
 C. It is a pump for active transport of K+ out of the cell and Na+ into the cell. 
 D. It is a pump for active transport of K+ into the cell and Na+ out of the cell. 
 E. It is a pump that utilizes energy from ATP. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!89

1-!90

37. The release of insulin from pancreatic cells occurs by 
 A. endocytosis. 
 B. pinocytosis. 
 C. phagocytosis. 
 D. exocytosis. 
 E. receptor-mediated endocytosis. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


38. Which of the following best describes the selective uptake of a specific cargo molecule into the cell through receptor binding and aggregation? 
 A. pinocytosis 
 B. receptor-mediated endocytosis 
 C. autophagocytosis 
 D. phagocytosis 
 E. receptor-mediated exocytosis 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells





True / False Questions
 39. Plant cell membranes contain cholesterol. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!91

40. Membrane proteins are attached to or embedded in the phospholipid bilayer. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!92

41. The presence of integral proteins allows membranes to be selectively permeable to certain molecules. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


42. Freeze fracture electron microscopy allows one to observe the two-dimensional cross section of membrane proteins. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


43. The current model that best describes biomembranes is the Rigid Mosaic Model. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.01
 Topic: Cells


44. Diffusion is the movement of a molecule from an area of high to low concentration. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


45. Osmosis describes the movement of water from an area of high to low solute concentration. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!93

1-!94

46. Movement of molecules down their concentration gradient can drive the movement of a different molecule against its concentration gradient. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


47. Facilitated diffusion is required for the movement of Na+ out of the cell. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


48. The Na+/K+-ATPase pump is a ligand-gated ion channel. 
 FALSE


 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


49. A macrophage (immune cell) consuming a bacteria is best described as phagocytosis. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


50. Ion gradients across the membrane drive numerous cellular functions. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 5.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!95

Chapter 06 Test Bank: An Introduction to Energy, Enzymes, and Metabolism 


Multiple Choice Questions


1. Which of the following represents two general factors that determine the fate of a chemical reaction in living cells? 
 A. its enzyme and rate 
 B. its enzyme and direction 
 C. its direction and rate 
 D. its rate and product 
 E. its enzyme and products 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.01
 Section: 6.04
 Topic: Cells


2. Water held behind a dam would best reflect ________. 
 A. potential energy 
 B. kinetic energy 
 C. chemical energy 
 D. heat energy 
 E. mechanical energy 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!96

3. All of the following have potential energy EXCEPT 
 A. ATP. 
 B. nitrogen. 
 C. an electrical/ion gradient. 
 D. concentration gradient. 
 E. NADH 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!97

4. According to the first law of thermodynamics 
 A. the transfer of energy increases the disorder of a system. 
 B. the transfer of energy increases entropy. 
 C. energy cannot be created or destroyed. 
 D. once energy is created it can be destroyed. 
 E. kinetic energy is based on location. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


5. The amount of available energy that can be used to promote change do work is called 
 A. enthalpy. 
 B. entropy. 
 C. free energy. 
 D. kinetic energy. 
 E. heat. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


6. Which of the following is TRUE for a reaction that has a ΔG ! A. The reaction will require energy. 
 B. The reaction will yield energy. 
 C. The reaction is spontaneous. 
 D. The reaction will require energy and is spontaneous. 
 E. The reaction will yield energy and is spontaneous. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!98

0? 


7. Which is true of the following reaction: ! ? 
 A. It has a change in free energy that is less than 0. 
 B. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0. 
 C. It can be used to drive endergonic reactions. 
 D. It yields energy. 
 E. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0, and hence can be used to drive endergonic reactions. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 6.03
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


8. Which of the following reactions would require the hydrolysis of at least two ATP molecules (ΔG = -14.6 kCal) for it to occur? 
 A. A reaction that has a ΔG = -8 kCal. 
 B. A reaction that has a ΔG = +8 kCal. 
 C. A reaction that has a ΔG = -16 kCal. 
 D. A reaction that has a ΔG = +16 kCal. 
 E. A reaction that has a ΔG = -14.6 kCal. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


9. A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is correctly described as 
 A. endergonic. 
 B. endothermic. 
 C. enthalpic. 
 D. spontaneous 
 E. exothermic. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!99

10. Which of the following is true for ALL exergonic reactions? 
 A. The products have more total energy than the reactants. 
 B. The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy. 
 C. Some reactants will be converted to products. 
 D. A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed. 
 E. The reactions are nonspontaneous. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


11. Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? 
 A. If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe. 
 B. If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe. 
 C. Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment. 
 D. Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe. 
 E. Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 6.02
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


12. Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE? 
 A. The active site of the enzyme is where the chemical reaction takes place. 
 B. The substrate binds to the enzyme with low affinity. 
 C. The enzyme undergoes a conformational change that brings substrates closer together in an induced fit. 
 D. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs over a narrow temperature range. 
 E. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs within a narrow pH range. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!100

13. How does an enzyme work to catalyze a reaction? 
 A. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction. 
 B. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state. 
 C. It lowers the energy of activation of a reaction 
 D. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction and lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state. 
 E. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state or lowers the energy of activation of a reaction. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 6.04
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


14. If one were to double the amount of enzyme in a reaction with an initial ΔG of -5 kcal/ mole, what would the ΔG be? 
 A. -5 kcal/mole 
 B. -10 kcal/mole 
 C. -20 kcal/mole 
 D. +5 kcal/mole 
 E. +10 kcal/mole 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


15. Altering the three-dimensional structure of an enzyme might 
 A. change the amount of energy needed for a reaction. 
 B. prevent the substrate from binding the enzyme's active site. 
 C. change the type of substrate that binds the enzyme's active site. 
 D. change the type of product produced in the reaction. 
 E. allow the reaction to occur at a faster rate. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!101

16. The primary function of an enzyme or any biological catalyst is to 
 A. reduce the energy of activation of a reaction. 
 B. increase the rate of a reaction. 
 C. change the direction of a reaction. 
 D. reduced the energy of activation and increase the rate of a reaction. 
 E. increase the rate of a reaction and change the direction of a reaction. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


17. How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction? 
 A. Increase the activation energy needed. 
 B. Cool the reactants. 
 C. Decrease the concentration of the reactants. 
 D. Add a catalyst. 
 E. Increase the entropy of the reactants. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 6.04
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


18. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is TRUE? 
 A. Enzymes decrease the free energy change of a reaction. 
 B. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction. 
 C. Enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions. 
 D. Enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyze. 
 E. Enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentrations. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!102

19. Which of the following would best reflect the general steps of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? 
 A. enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released. 
 B. substrates bind to enzyme →substrates are converted to products → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → products are released 
 C. substrates bind to enzyme → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates are converted to products → products are released 
 D. enzyme undergoes conformational changes →substrates are converted to products → substrates bind to enzyme → products are released 
 E. substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released → enzyme undergoes conformational changes 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 6.05
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


20. Which term most precisely describes the process of building larger molecules from smaller ones? 
 A. exergonic 
 B. catabolism 
 C. metabolism 
 D. hydrolysis 
 E. anabolism 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!103

21. Which of the following is NOT true for ATP? 
 A. It is produced from ATP synthase. 
 B. It is produced by a rotary machine. 
 C. Its production requires an exergonic reaction. 
 D. Its hydrolysis yields energy. 
 E. Its hydrolysis can drive endergonic reactions. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!104

22. Which of the following statements about catabolic reactions is FALSE? 
 A. They recycle organic building blocks. 
 B. They produce energy like ATP. 
 C. They produce energy in the form of energy intermediates like NADH. 
 D. They occur through the oxidation of substrates. 
 E. They usually require an input of energy. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


23. Which of the statements in INCORRECT about the following reaction? Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → Pyruvate + ATP (ΔG = -7.5 kcal/mole) 
 A. It is anabolic. 
 B. It is catabolic. 
 C. It can be used to drive an endergonic reaction. 
 D. The synthesis of ATP occurs by substrate-level phosphorylation. 
 E. It is a reaction that yields energy. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


24. For the generalized equation Ae- +B → A + Be-, where e represents an electron. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
 A. Molecule A is reduced. 
 B. Molecule B is oxidzied. 
 C. Molecule A is oxidized. 
 D. Molecule B is reduced. 
 E. Both molecule A is oxidized and molecule B is reduced. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!105

25. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? 
 A. catalysis 
 B. metabolism 
 C. anabolism 
 D. dehydration 
 E. catabolism 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


26. Which of the following statements about inhibition in metabolic pathways is most CORRECT? 
 A. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by binding reactants in the metabolic pathway. 
 B. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by competitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme within the metabolic pathway. 
 C. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enyzme within the metabolic pathway. 
 D. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively binding to reactants. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 6.13
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!106

27. In the biochemical regulation of metabolic pathways, how would one overcome the effects of a competitive inhibitor on enzyme activity? 
 A. Increase the amount of substrate for the enzyme. 
 B. Increase the amount of competitive inhibitor. 
 C. Increase the temperature of the reaction. 
 D. Decrease the amount of enzyme. 
 E. Add a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!107

28. Which of the following structures or molecular machines is important for protein degradation in eukaryotes? 
 A. cytoskeleton 
 B. flagellum 
 C. ribosome 
 D. ATP synthase 
 E. proteasome 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.04
 Topic: Cells


29. Which of the following statements about ubiquitin is TRUE? 
 A. Ubiquitin recognizes improperly folded proteins. 
 B. Ubiquitin targets proteins for degradation. 
 C. Ubiquitin targets proteins for post-translational processing. 
 D. Ubiquitin recognizes improperly folded proteins and targets them for degradation. 
 E. Ubiquitin targets proteins for degradation and post-translational processing. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.04
 Topic: Cells


30. Which is the correct sequence of events for protein degradation in eukaryotes? 
 A. ubiquitin binds target protein → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein directed to proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled 
 B. ubiquitin binds target protein → protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled 
 C. protein directed to proteasome → ubiquitin binds target protein → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled 
 D. protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → ubiquitin binds target protein → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled 
 E. protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → ubiquitin binds target protein → amino acids are released and recycled 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 6.15
 Section: 6.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!108

1-!109

31. Which two are primary complexes for protein synthesis and degradation in eukaryotes? 
 A. ribosomes and proteasomes 
 B. ribosomes and lysosomes 
 C. proteases and lysosomes 
 D. proteases and proteasomes 
 E. ribosomes and mRNA 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.04
 Topic: Cells





True / False Questions
 32. Reactions that produce glucose have less entropy than those that oxidize glucose. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


33. A reaction with a ΔG ! TRUE

0 is endergonic and requires a net input of energy. 



 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.01
 Topic: Cells


34. Enzymes are consumed in chemical reactions and must therefore be replenished. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!110

35. Temperature, pH, and ionic concentrations play an important role in the proper functioning of enzymes. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


36. Noncompetitive inhibition within a metabolic pathway prevents excess accumulation of the pathway's product. This occurs when the product binds the active site of an enzyme, reducing its activity, and the subsequent accumulation of product. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.02
 Topic: Cells


37. Catabolic and anabolic reactions in living cells involve the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another in reduction-oxidation reactions. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


38. Metabolism reflects only those reactions that yield energy. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!111

39. The half-life of a molecule is the time it takes for 50% of the molecule to be broken down and recycled. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 6.04
 Topic: Cells


40. Autophagy is an important process that removes worn-out organelles, recycles components, then release them into the cytosol. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 6.16
 Section: 6.04
 Topic: Cells


Chapter 07 Test Bank: Cellular Respiration, Fermentation, and Secondary Metabolism




Multiple Choice Questions
 1. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes a reaction that 
 A. is endergonic. 
 B. requires energy. 
 C. occurs in plants only. 
 D. is exergonic. 
 E. is anabolic. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!112

2. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes which of the following processes? 
 A. photosynthesis 
 B. cell respiration 
 C. cell fermentation 
 D. glycolysis 
 E. anaerobic metabolism 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!113

3. Which of the following are the final by-products of glucose oxidation during aerobic cell respiration? 
 A. ATP only 
 B. heat only 
 C. carbon dioxide only 
 D. both ATP and heat only 
 E. ATP, heat, and carbon dioxide 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


4. Which of the following processes will occur in the presence or absence of oxygen? 
 A. glycolysis 
 B. electron transport chain 
 C. oxidative phosphorylation 
 D. cellular respiration 
 E. citric acid cycle 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


5. Where does glycolysis takes place? 
 A. mitochondrial matrix 
 B. mitochondrial membrane 
 C. mitochondrial inner membrane 
 D. mitochondrial intermembrane space 
 E. cytosol 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!114

6. Which of the following is NOT a process of aerobic respiration? 
 A. citric acid cycle 
 B. glycolysis 
 C. acetyl CoA formation 
 D. oxidative phosphorylation 
 E. lactate fermentation 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


7. Which of the following is TRUE of the citric acid cycle? 
 A. It yields most of the NAD+ in cell respiration. 
 B. It produces oxygen. 
 C. It yields ATP, NADH, and FADH2 as energy intermediates. 
 D. It occurs on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. 
 E. It produces ATP as the primary energy intermediate. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.06
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


8. Which of the following function: location relationship is INCORRECT? 
 A. acetyl CoA formation; cytosol 
 B. citric acid cycle; mitochondria matrix 
 C. oxidative phosphorylation; mitochondria inner membrane 
 D. glycolysis; cytosol 
 E. electron transport chain and ATP synthase; mitochondria inner membrane 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!115

9. Which compound has the highest free energy and produces the most ATP when oxidized? 
 A. acetyl CoA 
 B. glucose 
 C. pyruvate 
 D. carbon 
 E. both pyruvate and carbon 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


10. Cellular respiration produces the most chemical in the form of ATP from which of the following? 
 A. the electron transport chain 
 B. the citric acid cycle 
 C. substrate-level phosphorylation 
 D. glycolysis 
 E. oxidative phosphorylation 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


11. How many ATP and NADH molecules are produced from each molecule of glucose in the citric acid cycle only? 
 A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH 
 B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH 
 C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH 
 D. 1 ATP, 2 NADH 
 E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!116

12. How many net ATP and NADH molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis? 
 A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH 
 B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH 
 C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH 
 D. 2 ATP, 2 NADH 
 E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


13. High-energy electrons from molecules of NADH and FADH2 are transferred to a chain of proteins within the electron transport chain. What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain? 
 A. carbon dioxide 
 B. oxygen 
 C. cytochrome c 
 D. ubiquinone 
 E. NAD+ 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.08
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


14. Which of the following statements is TRUE of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration? 
 A. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate. 
 B. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates. 
 C. Both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct. 
 D. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate and both produce NADH as highenergy intermediates. 
 E. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates and both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!117

1-!118

15. Which would be TRUE if a metabolic poison were to completely inhibit the function of mitochondrial ATP synthase? 
 A. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would decrease. 
 B. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would increase. 
 C. ATP synthesis would increase. 
 D. Oxygen consumption would decrease. 
 E. The accumulation of NADH would increase. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


16. Which of the following is most directly responsible for driving ATP synthase and the production of ATP in cellular respiration? 
 A. The electron transport chain pumping H+ from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space. 
 B. The flow of electrons down the electron transport chain. 
 C. The loss in free energy that occurs as an electron moves down the transport chain. 
 D. The H+ electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondria membrane. 
 E. The ability of oxygen to rapidly capture an electron and energize ATP synthase. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


17. Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain in cell respiration is CORRECT? 
 A. Electrons move from NADH to a chain of proteins with lower electronegativities. 
 B. The electron transport chain of proteins uses ATP to pump H+ across the inner mitochondria membrane against its electrochemical gradient. 
 C. The loss in free energy of the electron initially donated by NADH is used to transport H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane against its electrochemical gradient. 
 D. The electron transport chain of proteins contains pores that are leaky to H+. 
 E. The ATP synthase pump generates a H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.07
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


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1-!120

18. Assuming a fat molecule can be oxidized into 2 glycerol molecules, which are immediately converted to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, in intermediate glycolysis, how many ATP can be produced from a fat molecule? 
 A. 4 
 B. 8 
 C. 24 
 D. 36 
 E. 60 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 7.02
 Topic: Cells


19. Where are the protein complexes associated with the electron transport chain located? 
 A. mitochondrial matrix 
 B. mitochondrial membrane 
 C. mitochondrial inner membrane 
 D. mitochondrial intermembrane space 
 E. cytosol 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.07
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


20. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into 
 A. acetyl CoA. 
 B. NADH. 
 C. pyruvate. 
 D. oxygen. 
 E. ATP. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.02
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!121

21. The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by 
 A. substrate-level phosphorylation. 
 B. electron transport. 
 C. photophosphorylation. 
 D. chemisosmosis. 
 E. oxidation of NADH to NAD+ 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.02
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


22. During the cleavage stage of glycolysis, fructose-1, 6 biphosphate is broken down into 
 A. citric acid. 
 B. two molecules of pyruvate. 
 C. two molecules of ATP. 
 D. two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. 
 E. glucose. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.02
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


23. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis? 
 A. CO2 and NADH 
 B. CO2 and pyruvate 
 C. H2O, NADH, and citrate 
 D. NADH and pyruvate 
 E. CO2 and H2O 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!122

24. In the citric acid cycle, the acetyl group is removed from acetyl CoA and attached to oxaloacetate to form 
 A. fumarate. 
 B. succinate. 
 C. citrate. 
 D. malate. 
 E. oxaloacetate. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.06
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


25. In the citric acid cycle, succinate is oxidized to form 
 A. fumarate. 
 B. succinate. 
 C. citrate. 
 D. malate. 
 E. oxaloacetate. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.06
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


26. In the citric acid cycle, malate is oxidized to form 
 A. fumarate. 
 B. succinate. 
 C. citrate. 
 D. malate. 
 E. oxaloacetate. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.06
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!123

27. The enzyme responsible for oxidizing pyruvate once it enters the mitochondrial matrix is 
 A. pyruvate oxidase 
 B. pyruvate dehydrogenase. 
 C. hexokinase 
 D. ATP synthase. 
 E. peptidase. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.04
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


28. Which pathway shows the correct path of electron transfer from a molecule of NADH? 
 A. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome oxidase → cytochrome b-c1 → cytochrome c → O2 
 B. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome c → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome oxidase → O2 
 C. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → NADH hydrogenase → O2 
 D. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2 
 E. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → NADH hydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.08
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!124

29. Which pathway shows the correct path of electron transfer from a molecule of FADH2? 
 A. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome oxidase → cytochrome b-c1 → cytochrome c → O2 
 B. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2 
 C. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → NADH hydrogenase → O2 
 D. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2 
 E. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → NADH hydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.08
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


30. Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location? 
 A. cytosol 
 B. mitochondrial outer membrane 
 C. mitochondrial inner membrane 
 D. mitochondrial intermembrane space 
 E. mitochondrial matrix 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.07
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!125

31. Sports physiologists at an Olympic training center wanted to monitor athletes to determine at what point their muscles were functioning anaerobically. They could do this by checking for the buildup of which molecule? 
 A. ATP 
 B. lactate 
 C. carbon dioxide 
 D. ADP 
 E. oxygen 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.02
 Topic: Cells


32. Which of the following is INCORRECT for ethanol fermentation? 
 A. A source of organic sugar is required, for instance from malt. 
 B. Results in a net production of NADH. 
 C. Glucose is oxidized to pyruvate as one of the steps. 
 D. Carbon dioxide and ATP are produced. 
 E. NADH is used to reduce acetaldehyde to ethanol. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.02
 Topic: Cells


33. Which of the following does NOT occur during yeast fermentation? 
 A. Acetylaldehyde is reduced to make ethanol. 
 B. Decrease in NADH. 
 C. Lactate is produced. 
 D. Pyruvate is broken down into CO2 and acetylaldehyde. 
 E. NADH is oxidized to NAD+ 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.15
 Section: 7.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!126

34. When muscles cells are deprived of oxygen, the heart still pumps. What must the heart cells be able to do? 
 A. derive sufficient energy from fermentation 
 B. continue aerobic metabolism when skeletal muscle cannot 
 C. transform lactate to pyruvate again 
 D. remove lactate from the blood 
 E. remove oxygen from lactate 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.02
 Topic: Cells


35. Which of the following is NOT considered a secondary metabolite? 
 A. glucose 
 B. flavonoids 
 C. terpenoids 
 D. alkoloids 
 E. polyketides 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.03
 Topic: Cells


36. Vanillin is to flavonoids as atropine is to 
 A. flavonoids. 
 B. terpenoids. 
 C. polyketides. 
 D. alkoloids. 
 E. B-carotenes. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.03
 Topic: Cells





True / False Questions


1-!127

37. Glycolysis involves 10 enzyme-catalyzed steps, that can be grouped into three phases: energy investment phase, cleavage phase, and the energy liberation phase. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.02
 Figure: 7.03
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


38. The electron transport chain consists of a series of redox reactions in which electrons are transferred to oxygen as the final electron acceptor. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.07
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


39. Oxygen is an excellent final electron acceptor because of its low electronegativity. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


40. NADH and FADH2 donate their electrons to protein complex I. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.08
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!128

41. Ubiquinone is also known as coenzyme Q. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


42. ATP synthase is a good example of a molecular machine that is composed of various protein subunits and that has moving parts. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.10
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


43. The proton motive force is key to chemiosis because the H+ electrochemical gradient is lower in the intermembrane space than inside the matrix. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.07
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


44. If oxygen is present, pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA in the mitochondrial matrix. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 7.01
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!129

45. When a molecule of NAD+ (nicontinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom, the molecule becomes reduced. 
 TRUE


 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


46. Proteins and fats may be used as energy sources to drive aerobic respiration. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


47. During the energy investment phase of glycolysis there is a decrease of free energy that allows later reactions to be exergonic. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 7.02
 Section: 7.01
 Topic: Cells


48. The ability of bread to rise is mainly a function of the CO2 produced during oxidative phosphorylation rather than that produced from fermentation. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!130

49. The aerobic breakdown of glucose yields 34 to 38 ATP, while the anaerobic breakdown of glucose yields 20 ATP. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 7.02
 Topic: Cells


50. Secondary metabolites like caffeine are produced mainly from plant sources. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 7.03
 Topic: Cells


Chapter 08 Test Bank: Photosynthesis




Multiple Choice Questions


1. The primary source of energy for most organisms is ultimately derived from 
 A. glucose. 
 B. glycogen. 
 C. plants. 
 D. the sun. 
 E. catabolism. 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!131

2. Which of the following type of organism is most likely an autotroph? 
 A. caribou 
 B. lion 
 C. human 
 D. tree 
 E. parasite 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!132

3. These organisms most specifically utilize light energy to make organic molecules from inorganic molecules. 
 A. photoautotrophs 
 B. photoheterotrophs 
 C. photoisotrophs 
 D. photohemitrophs 
 E. heterotrophs 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


4. ________ consume organic molecules to live. 
 A. Photoautotrophs 
 B. Autotrophs 
 C. Hemitrophs 
 D. Heterotrophs 
 E. Plants 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


5. Which of the following organisms produce organic matter from inorganic molecules? 
 A. photosynthetic bacteria 
 B. plants 
 C. algae 
 D. autotrophs 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!133

6. The equation, 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2, describes a reaction that 
 A. is exergonic. 
 B. yields energy. 
 C. occurs in animals only. 
 D. is catabolic. 
 E. is anabolic. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


7. The equation, 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2, describes which of the following processes? 
 A. photosynthesis 
 B. light reaction 
 C. Calvin cycle 
 D. nitrogen fixation 
 E. aerobic respiration 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


8. In what portion of the plant does photosynthesis takes place? 
 A. mesophyll 
 B. chloroplast 
 C. thylakoid membrane 
 D. grana 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!134

9. The main structure for gas exchange in plants is called the 
 A. mesophyll. 
 B. chloroplast. 
 C. stomata. 
 D. epidermis. 
 E. root. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


10. Which of the following statements would be most INCORRECT if there were a sudden decline in plants on Earth? 
 A. Oxygen levels in the environment might decline. 
 B. The rate of photosynthesis in existing plants would decline. 
 C. There would be less organic matter on Earth. 
 D. A decline in the population of herbivores would likely occur. 
 E. Heterotrophic organisms would be significantly impacted. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


11. Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction? 
 A. NADPH 
 B. ATP 
 C. oxygen 
 D. carbon dioxide 
 E. energy intermediates 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 8.03
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!135

12. A new flower species has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be blue-green. What wavelengths of visible light does this pigment reflect? 
 A. red and yellow 
 B. blue and violet 
 C. green and blue 
 D. red, yellow, and green 
 E. green, red, and violet 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


13. Among the different forms of electromagnetic radiation emitted by the sun, which form is visible? 
 A. ultraviolet 
 B. gamma rays 
 C. light 
 D. microwaves 
 E. infrared 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 8.04
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


14. Which of the following statements about chlorophyll is correct? 
 A. It appears green because it absorbs light in the green light spectrum. 
 B. It reflects all colors in the light spectrum except green. 
 C. It reflects light in the green light spectrum. 
 D. It reflects high-energy electrons. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!136

15. This pigment is responsible for the red-yellow coloration seen in leaves during the color change in autumn. 
 A. chlorophyll a 
 B. chlorophyll b 
 C. carotenoids 
 D. porphyrin 
 E. phytol 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


16. Which of the following is mismatched with its location? 
 A. light reaction; grana 
 B. electron transport; thylakoid membrane 
 C. Calvin cycle; stroma 
 D. ATP synthase; intermembrane space 
 E. splitting of water; thylakoid space 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 8.08
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


17. Which of the following produces NADPH 
 A. light reactions alone 
 B. the Calvin cycle alone 
 C. both light reactions and the Calvin cycle 
 D. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle 
 E. NADPH production is not a part of photosynthesis. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 8.08
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!137

18. During the light reaction water is oxidized to form oxygen. This process 
 A. yields low-energy electrons. 
 B. yields high-energy electrons. 
 C. is needed to replace the electron lost by P680 during the light reaction. 
 D. yields low-energy electrons and is needed to replace the electron lost by P680 during the light reaction. 
 E. yields high-energy electrons and is needed to replace the electron lost by P680 during the light reaction. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


19. Which of the following molecules directly converts NADP+ to NADPH? 
 A. ferrodoxin 
 B. cytochrome complex 
 C. NADP reductase 
 D. plastocyanin 
 E. RUBISCO 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


20. Which of the following is FALSE when comparing the mitochondria and chloroplast? 
 A. Both have similar electron transport protein complexes whose structures have been well conserved. 
 B. Both contain ATP synthase. 
 C. Both generate ATP via a H+ electrochemical gradient. 
 D. The inner-membrane space of the mitochondria is similar to that of the thylakoid space insofar as each has a higher H+ concentration relative to that of the mitochondrial matrix and chloroplast stroma. 
 E. The stroma of chloroplasts is similar to that of the mitochondrial inner-membrane space insofar as each has a higher H+ concentration relative to that of the chloroplast thylakoid lumen and the mitochondrial matrix. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!138

1-!139

21. During noncyclic electron flow of the light reaction, which molecule is the final acceptor of the high-energy electron? 
 A. oxygen 
 B. P700 
 C. NADP+ 
 D. P680 
 E. ATP synthase 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


22. In photosynthesis, which of the following is LEAST involved in the production of ATP? 
 A. light 
 B. redox reactions 
 C. electrochemical H+ gradient across the thylakoid membrane 
 D. ATP synthase 
 E. NADP reductase 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


23. During photosynthesis, the energy given up by electrons as they move through the electron transport chain is used to 
 A. produce glucose. 
 B. fix CO2. 
 C. generate an electrochemical H+ gradient across a membrane. 
 D. oxidize water. 
 E. boost energy levels of pigment electrons. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!140

24. Which portion of the photosynthetic apparatus is involved in the oxidation or splitting of water? 
 A. reaction center 
 B. antenna complex 
 C. P680 chlorophyll 
 D. manganese cluster 
 E. light-harvesting complex 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 8.11
 Section: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


25. Which of the following represents a reactant or input for the light reaction of photosynthesis? 
 A. oxygen 
 B. carbon dioxide 
 C. ATP 
 D. NADPH 
 E. H2O 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 8.03
 Section: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


26. What is the main role of the pigment molecules within the antenna or light-harvesting complex? 
 A. Oxidize water and release oxygen to the reaction center chlorophyll. 
 B. Absorb photons and transfer light energy to the reaction center chlorophyll. 
 C. Synthesize NADPH. 
 D. electrons to the electron transport chain and then to NADPH. 
 E. Increase H+ concentration in the stroma. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!141

27. Which of the following statements regarding photosystem II is FALSE? 
 A. Photosystem II encomes a series of redox reactions. 
 B. Photosystem II contains a chlorophyll molecule that absorbs light at 680 nm. 
 C. Photosystem II strips an electron from water for direct transfer to the electron transport chain. 
 D. Photosystem II oxidizes water to form oxygen. 
 E. Photosystem II contains a series of pigments where energy is transferred by resonance energy transfer. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


28. Which of the following contributes to the electrochemical gradient that exists across the thylakoid membrane during photosynthesis? 
 A. The electron transport chain. 
 B. The splitting of water to produce H+ and oxygen in the thylakoid lumen. 
 C. The depletion of H+ in the stroma during NADPH production. 
 D. The pumping of H+ into the thylakoid lumen by electron transport proteins. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


29. Which of the following best represents the path of electron flow that occurs during photosynthesis? 
 A. H2O→P680→Final Electron Acceptor→Electron transport chain→P700 
 B. H2O→P680→Final Electron Acceptor→P700→Electron transport chain 
 C. P680→H2O→Final Electron Acceptor→P700→Electron transport chain 
 D. P680→Final Electron Acceptor→H2O→Electron transport chain→P700 
 E. P680→ Electron transport chain→Final Electron Acceptor→H2O→P700 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!142

30. What are the primary functions of both photosystems I and II ? 
 A. produce ATP and NADP+ 
 B. produce CO2 and ATP 
 C. produce ATP and NADPH 
 D. produce O2, ATP, and NADP+ 
 E. produce O2, ATP, and NADPH 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


31. Which portion of the photosynthetic apparatus absorbs light? 
 A. photosystem I 
 B. photosystem II 
 C. NADP reductase 
 D. both photosystem I and photosystem II 
 E. both photosystem I and NADP reductase 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.03
 Topic: Cells


32. How might a plant cope with the fact that the Calvin cycle uses more ATP than NADPH, yet produces roughly the same amount of both energy intermediates in photosystems I and II? 
 A. Photosynthesis can revert from a noncyclic to cyclic electron flow. 
 B. More pigment can be rapidly layed down for greater photosynthetic capacity. 
 C. Plants often increase the amount of NADP reductase. 
 D. Electron flow rate can be increased. 
 E. Increase the electrochemical gradient for H+ across the thylakoid membrane. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!143

33. Which order of events for the Calvin cycle is correct? 
 I. Reduction
 II. Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor (RuBP)
 III. Carbon fixation 
 A. I, II, III 
 B. III, II, I 
 C. III, I, II 
 D. II, I, III 
 E. I, III, II 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


34. Where does the Calvin cycle occur? 
 A. chloroplast inner membrane 
 B. thylakoid membrane 
 C. thylakoid lumen 
 D. chloroplast stroma 
 E. chloroplast outer membrane 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


35. This molecule combines with CO2 to form the 3-carbon substance, 3-phosphoglycerate. 
 A. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) 
 B. glucose 
 C. ribulose biphoshpate (RuBP) 
 D. glycerol 
 E. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 8.15
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!144

36. Which of the following requires both ATP and NADPH? 
 A. electron transport through the thylakoid membrane 
 B. the light reaction only 
 C. the Calvin cycle only 
 D. both the light reaction and Calvin cycle 
 E. neither the light reaction nor the Calvin cycle 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


37. Using 14CO2 as a radioactive tracer, which of the following molecules would be the last to incorporate 14C within the Calvin cycle? 
 A. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) 
 B. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG) 
 C. 3-phosphoglycerate (3PG) 
 D. ribulose biphosphate (RuBP) 
 E. rubisco 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


38. Which of the following is NOT a product of the Calvin cycle? 
 A. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) 
 B. NADP+ 
 C. ADP 
 D. NADPH 
 E. Pi 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!145

39. All of the following are required for the Calvin cycle EXCEPT 
 A. CO2. 
 B. H2O. 
 C. ATP. 
 D. NADPH. 
 E. rubisco. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


40. Which of the following statements about photorespiration is INCORRECT? 
 A. Photorespiration tends to occur under dry and hot conditions. 
 B. It utilizes oxygen to produce a 3-carbon sugar precursor. 
 C. It liberates CO2. 
 D. It occurs in C3 plants. 
 E. It utilizes the enzyme PEP carboxylase rather than Rubisco to produce 3phosphoglycerate. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.05
 Topic: Cells


41. Which of the following has the highest photosynthetic efficiency in hot and dry environments? 
 A. C3 plants 
 B. C4 plants 
 C. plants undergoing photorespiration 
 D. plants that use oxygen to produce sugars 
 E. plants that only produce sugar in the dark 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.05
 Topic: Cells


1-!146

42. Which is TRUE of succulent plants such as cacti or pineapple? 
 A. They are C3 plants. 
 B. They are highly efficient at photosynthesis in cooler and wet environments. 
 C. They tend to undergo substantial rates of photorespiration. 
 D. They produce 4-carbon malate in the first step of carbon fixation. 
 E. They continually produce sugar, both day and night under hot arid conditions. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.05
 Topic: Cells


43. CAM (crassulacean acid metabolism) plants such as cacti differ from standard C4 plants such as corn in which of the following way? 
 A. CAM plants minimize photorespiration whereas C4 plants do not. 
 B. CAM plants use both mesophyll and bundle sheath leaf cells for photosynthesis whereas C4 plants do not. 
 C. CAM plants are more efficient at producing sugar than C4 plants regardless of environmental conditions. 
 D. CAM plants produce a 4-carbon molecule in the first step of carbon fixation, but C4 plants do not. 
 E. CAM plants are limited to producing CO2 for the Calvin cycle during the day, while C4 plants produce CO2 for the Calvin cycle both during the day and at night. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.05
 Topic: Cells


44. Which of the following is the primary advantage of C4 plants over C3 plants? 
 A. C4 plants minimize photorespiration compared with C3 plants. 
 B. C4 plants can produce sugars more efficiently than C3 plants under hot, arid conditions. 
 C. C4 plants can produce CO2 needed for sugar production in the Calvin cycle more efficiently than C3 plants. 
 D. Relative to C3 plants, C4 plants can keep their stomata closed more frequently to limit water evaporation, yet can still produce significant CO2 needed for sugar production. 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.05
 Topic: Cells


1-!147

1-!148




True / False Questions


5. Organisms such as ourselves are best described as heterotrophs. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.01
 Topic: Cells


46. The rate of photosynthesis is much greater in the green than red light spectrum. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


47. Photons from light can boost an electron to a higher energy state. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


48. Both photosystem I and II can harness light energy and split water to produce oxygen. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!149

49. The Calvin cycle is only capable of fixing carbon dioxide in the dark. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 8.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!150

50. The most efficient plants at producing sugars under hot and arid environments maximize photorespiration. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 8.05
 Topic: Cells


Chapter 09 Test Bank: Cell Communication




Multiple Choice Questions


1. ________ is the process through which cells can detect and respond to signals in their extracellular environment. 
 A. Cell sensation 
 B. Cell communication 
 C. Reception 
 D. Transduction 
 E. Sensory response 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


2. Which of the following types of molecules is LEAST involved in cell communication? 
 A. carbohydrates 
 B. lipids 
 C. steroids 
 D. proteins 
 E. neurotransmitters 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!151

1-!152

3. A substrate binds an enzyme as a signal molecule binds a 
 A. second messenger. 
 B. kinase. 
 C. receptor. 
 D. transcriptional factor. 
 E. G-protein. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


4. During exposure to elevated glucose, a yeast cell's membrane glucose transporters will rapidly increase so the cell can import glucose. Which would represent the yeast cell response? 
 A. increased membrane glucose transporters 
 B. increased membrane glucose receptors 
 C. increased glucose transport into the cell 
 D. both increased membrane glucose transporters and glucose receptors 
 E. both increased membrane glucose transporters and glucose transport into the cell 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 9.01
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


5. During exposure to elevated glucose, a yeast cell's membrane glucose transporters will rapidly increase so the cell can import glucose. Which would represent the signal for the yeast cell? 
 A. glucose transporters 
 B. glucose receptors 
 C. glucose 
 D. glucose transport into the cell 
 E. glucose kinase 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Figure: 9.01
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!153

6. What type of cell communication is said to occur if a cell secretes a growth factor that then acts on neighboring cells to cause them to proliferate? 
 A. -to- signaling 
 B. intercellular signaling 
 C. autocrine signaling 
 D. paracrine signaling 
 E. endocrine signaling 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


7. What type of signaling occurs when insulin is secreted from the pancreas and acts on muscle cells to increase glucose uptake? 
 A. -to- signaling 
 B. intercellular signaling 
 C. autocrine signaling 
 D. paracrine signaling 
 E. endocrine signaling 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 9.03
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


8. What do we call molecules involved in long-distance signaling? 
 A. kinases 
 B. transcription factors 
 C. hormones 
 D. response elements 
 E. receptors 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!154

9. Which of the following represents a long-distance signaling mechanism? 
 A. -to- signaling 
 B. intercellular signaling 
 C. autocrine signaling 
 D. paracrine signaling 
 E. endocrine signaling 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


10. What do synaptic signaling and paracrine signaling have in common? 
 A. Cells release a signal that affects it and neighboring cells. 
 B. Cells release a signal that affects cells at long distances. 
 C. Cells release a signal through gap junctions to affect neighboring cells. 
 D. Cells bind a membrane bound signal on a neighboring cell. 
 E. Cells release a signal that affects neighboring cells. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 9.03
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


11. Which of the following is not a common way signals are relayed between cells? 
 A. -dependent signaling 
 B. Autocrine signaling 
 C. Direct intercellular signaling 
 D. Paracrine signaling 
 E. All of the above are ways signals are relayed between cells 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 9.03
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!155

12. The KD or dissociation constant between a receptor and its hormone/ligand is 
 A. a measure of the binding affinity the receptor has for the hormone. 
 B. the hormone concentration where half the receptors are bound to hormone. 
 C. the hormone concentration where all of the receptors are bound to hormone. 
 D. both a measure of the binding affinity the receptor has for the hormone and the hormone concentration where half the receptors are bound to hormone. 
 E. both a measure of the binding affinity the receptor has for the hormone and the hormone concentration where all the receptors are bound to hormone. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


13. What do G-protein coupled, enzyme-linked, and ligand-gated ion channel receptors have in common? 
 A. They are all linked to protein kinase activation. 
 B. They associate with protein bound to guanidine phosphates. 
 C. They open ion channels. 
 D. They bind similar hormones. 
 E. They change their conformation when bound to a hormone. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


14. A key is placed into a keyhole then turned and the door opens. Which of the following components of cell signaling would best correspond to turning the key? 
 A. the hormone 
 B. the receptor 
 C. conformational change in the receptor once bound to the hormone 
 D. signal transduction 
 E. the cell response 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!156

15. A key is placed into a keyhole then turned and the door opens. Which of the following components of cell signaling would best correspond to the keyhole? 
 A. the hormone 
 B. the receptor 
 C. conformational change in the receptor once bound to the hormone 
 D. signal transduction 
 E. the cell response 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


16. Once bound to a hormone, this receptor becomes active and catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to itself or intracellular proteins. 
 A. G-protein coupled receptor 
 B. enzyme-linked receptor 
 C. ligand-gated ion channel receptor 
 D. mechanoreceptor 
 E. thermoreceptor 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!157

17. Which of the following order of events is most accurate for activation of G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling pathways? 
 A. Hormone binds GPCR, GPCR binds with G protein, G protein loses GDP and gains GTP, G-protein alpha subunit activates intracellular proteins. 
 B. Hormone binds GPCR, G protein loses GDP and gains GTP, GPCR binds with G protein, G-protein alpha subunit activates intracellular proteins. 
 C. Hormone binds GPCR, GPCR binds with G protein, G-protein alpha subunit activates intracellular proteins, G protein loses GDP and gains GTP. 
 D. Hormone binds GPCR, G protein loses GDP and gains GTP, G-protein alpha subunit activates intracellular proteins, GPCR binds with G protein. 
 E. GPCR binds with G protein, hormone binds GPCR, G protein loses GDP and gains GTP, G-protein alpha subunit activates intracellular proteins. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!158

18. Following its initial activation, how does a G protein become inactivated? 
 A. It spontaneously loses activity within a few seconds. 
 B. The G-protein α subunit containing a GTP eventually reassociates with the G-protein βγ dimer. 
 C. The G-protein α subunit GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP allowing reassociation of the Gprotein α subunit and βγ dimer. 
 D. The receptor becomes internalized. 
 E. The G-protein α subunit is digested and recycled. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


19. A G-protein coupled receptor associates with a G protein that contains how many subunits? 
 A. 0 
 B. 1 
 C. 2 
 D. 3 
 E. 4 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


20. Which of the following is TRUE of ligand-gated ion channels? 
 A. They bind ions with high affinity. 
 B. They tend to allow any ion to through the channel. 
 C. The intracellular domain of the channel contains the binding site for the ligand. 
 D. They open upon binding the ligand to allow specific ions to through them. 
 E. Ligand binding closes the channels preventing further ion age through the channel. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!159

21. Which of the following statements about steroid receptors is FALSE? 
 A. The receptors undergo a conformational change after binding the steroid. 
 B. The receptors are localized to the plasma membrane. 
 C. Once the steroid binds the receptor, the steroid/receptor complexes dimerize. 
 D. Steroid receptors act as transcriptional factors, regulating the expression of certain genes and the subsequent production of proteins. 
 E. Steroid receptors are localized to either the cytoplasm or nucleus. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


22. Which of the following receptor and signal transduction molecules are mismatched? 
 A. sensor kinase receptor (NarQ): NarL 
 B. G-protein coupled receptor: adenylyl cyclase 
 C. G-protein coupled receptor: phospholipase C 
 D. enzyme linked receptors: protein kinase 
 E. steroid receptor: calcium 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


23. When assembling a fish aquarium one must add a conditioner to the water that contains bacteria capable of metabolizing fish waste such as ammonia, nitrate, and nitrite that accumulates in the aquaria water. Which of the following components of signal reception and transduction is NOT required for the bacterial two-component regulatory system for metabolizing these nitrogenous waste products? 
 A. NarQ receptor 
 B. NarL transcriptional activator 
 C. a protein kinase 
 D. metabolic enzymes 
 E. ligand-gated calcium channel 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!160

24. Which of the following is capable of dephosphorylating molecules? 
 A. phospholipase C 
 B. protein kinase A 
 C. Grb2/Sos/Ras complex 
 D. phosphatase 
 E. IP3 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


25. Adenylyl cyclase is to cAMP as ________ is to IP3. 
 A. protein kinase A 
 B. protein kinase C 
 C. calmodulin 
 D. Raf1 
 E. phospholipase C 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


26. Which of the following is LEAST likely involved in calcium signaling? 
 A. IP3 
 B. calmodulin 
 C. protein kinase A 
 D. protein kinase C 
 E. phospolipase C 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!161

27. Estrogen is most likely to exert its effects by regulating 
 A. protein kinases. 
 B. phopholipase C. 
 C. expression of genes and production of specific proteins. 
 D. cyclic AMP. 
 E. Ca2+. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


28. What do enzyme-linked receptors and growth factor receptors have in common? 
 A. Both possess kinase activity when bound to a hormone. 
 B. Both regulate specific G proteins when bound to a hormone. 
 C. Both act as transcriptional factors. 
 D. Both regulate the transport of ions through channels. 
 E. Both seldom affect the expression of genes within the nucleus. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


29. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in the cAMP signal transduction pathway? 
 A. G protein→cAMP→adenylyl cyclase→protein kinase A→cell response 
 B. G protein→adenylyl cyclase→protein kinase A→cAMP→cell response 
 C. G protein→protein kinase A→adenylyl cyclase→cAMP→cell response 
 D. G protein→adenylyl cyclase→cAMP→protein kinase A→cell response 
 E. adenylyl cyclase→G protein→cAMP→protein kinase A→cell response 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!162

30. A hormone binds a receptor and activates the cAMP signal transduction pathway ultimately leading to the cell response. Which of the following is NOT a likely mechanism for reversing (or shutting off) cAMP transduction? 
 A. The hormone dissociating from the receptor. 
 B. The GTP on the alpha subunit of the G protein is hydrolyzed to GDP. 
 C. Activate phosphodiesterase. 
 D. Activate adenylyl cyclase. 
 E. Protein phosphatases remove phosphates from proteins initially activated by protein kinase A. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


31. Which molecule is directly responsible for breaking down cAMP to inactive AMP? 
 A. protein kinase A 
 B. adenylyl cyclase 
 C. phosphodiesterase 
 D. GTPase 
 E. protein phosphatase 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


32. The production of second messengers in signal transduction offers at least two advantages, speed and 
 A. specificity. 
 B. amplification. 
 C. one-to-one stochiometry. 
 D. reversibility. 
 E. affinity. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!163

33. What type of receptor does IP3 bind? 
 A. G-protein coupled 
 B. ligand-gated Ca2+ channel 
 C. enzyme-linked 
 D. sensor kinase 
 E. phospholipase type-I 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


34. Phospholipase C hydrolyzes a membrane phospholipid to produce 
 A. IP3 only. 
 B. protein kinase C only. 
 C. diacylglycerol only. 
 D. both IP3 and protein kinase C. 
 E. both IP3 and diacylglycerol. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


35. All of the following are general components of the growth factor signaling pathway EXCEPT 
 A. tyrosine kinase-linked receptor. 
 B. GRB2-Sos-Ras complexes. 
 C. phosphorylated transcription factors. 
 D. Raf-1. 
 E. IP3 and Ca2+. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


1-!164

36. Which of the following is not an effect of epinephrine throughout the body? 
 A. Promotes the breakdown of glycogen in skeletal muscle cells 
 B. Relaxes lung airways 
 C. Stimulates heart muscle cells 
 D. A person feeling energized after drinking a cup of caffeinated coffee 
 E. The body's ability to digest a large meal 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.04
 Topic: Cells


37. Various cells in the body respond to the hormone epinephrine in various ways due to ________. 
 A. cellular respiration 
 B. metabolism 
 C. phosphodiesterase 
 D. protein kinases 
 E. differential gene regulation 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.04
 Topic: Cells


38. Which of the following is NOT an example of how differential gene regulation affects cellular response? 
 A. The expression of proteins that are controlled by signal transduction pathways may vary in different cell types. 
 B. Cell junctions ing ions between the cytosol of one cell to another cell. 
 C. A cell may or may not express a receptor for a particular signaling molecule. 
 D. The expression of proteins involved in intracellular signal transduction pathways may vary in different cell types 
 E. Different cell types have different cell surface receptors that recognize the same signaling molecules. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!165

39. Programmed cell death is known as _______. 
 A. meiosis 
 B. cell genesis 
 C. autophagy 
 D. apoptosis 
 E. mitosis 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.05
 Topic: Cells





True / False Questions


40. Hormones regardless of whether they operate locally or at long distances must bind a receptor to elicit a cell response. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


41. Auxin is a plant hormone that causes cells to shorten and allow plant growing tips to move toward the sun. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 9.02
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


42. In of cell signaling, estrogen in animal cells works in a similar fashion as the plant hormone auxin via binding to intracellular receptors. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!166

1-!167

43. G proteins and Ras are activated when bound to guanosine diphosphate. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


44. One common feature with G-protein coupled, enzyme-linked, and growth factor receptors is that their activation leads to activation of protein kinases. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


45. Cyclic AMP activates protein kinase C in producing a cell response. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


46. If IP3 binds a Ca2+ ligand-gated ion channel in the endoplasmic reticulum then cytosolic Ca2+ levels will rise in the cell. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.03
 Topic: Cells


47. The type of cellular response that is caused by a given signaling molecule depends on the type of cell responding to the signal. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.04
 Topic: Cells


1-!168

1-!169

48. Apoptosis can occur via both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.05
 Topic: Cells


49. Apoptosis is necessary in humans in order to eliminate cells infected by viruses, cells that are worn out, and those that have the potential to cause cancer. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 9.05
 Topic: Cells


50. Ligands that promote cell death are typically produced on the surface of cells of the immune system that recognize abnormal cells and target them for destruction. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 9.05
 Topic: Cells


Chapter 10 Test Bank: Multicellularity


 Multiple Choice Questions


1-!170

1. Which of the following type of organism is always multicellular? 
 A. animals only 
 B. plants only 
 C. archae only 
 D. prokaryotes only 
 E. both animals and plants 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


2. Which of the following is most TRUE about multicellular organisms when compared with unicellular organisms? 
 A. Multicellular organisms carry out specialized functions, while unicellular organisms do not. 
 B. Multicellular organisms can reproduce themselves, while unicellular organisms cannot. 
 C. Multicellular organisms can digest more complex molecules than unicellular organisms. 
 D. Multicellular organisms tend to have larger genomes than unicellular organisms. 
 E. Multicellular organisms show development while unicellular organisms do not. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!171

3. The bones and cartilage in animals serve the same function as ________ in plants? 
 A. leaves 
 B. phloem 
 C. capillaries 
 D. wood 
 E. xylem 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


4. In animals, which of the following structures is largely composed of extracellular matrix? 
 A. kidney 
 B. intestine 
 C. eye 
 D. cartilage 
 E. muscle 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


5. Which of the following is NOT a function of the extracellular matrix? 
 A. provides strength 
 B. provides structural 
 C. provides organization of cells throughout the organism 
 D. provides an important source of energy for the organism 
 E. cell signaling 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!172

6. Which of the following ECM molecules provides tensile strength? 
 A. fibronectin 
 B. collagen 
 C. laminin 
 D. elastin 
 E. proteoglycan 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


7. Which of the following statements about the ECM is most CORRECT? 
 A. It is composed of living cells. 
 B. Its components are produced by specialized cells and transported throughout the body and deposited around the cell. 
 C. It is a source of protein for cells. 
 D. It protects cells from infectious agents. 
 E. Its components are produced and secreted by the cell. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


8. The major macromolecules of the ECM are polysaccharides and 
 A. lipids. 
 B. fat. 
 C. proteins. 
 D. nucleotides. 
 E. amino acids. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!173

9. Which of the following statements about collagen is INCORRECT? 
 A. There can be numerous types of collagen in multicellular organisms 
 B. It is produced from polymers of amino acids. 
 C. It tends to promote the "sticky" characteristics of the ECM. 
 D. Its breakdown is a contributing characteristic of wrinkling during aging. 
 E. It is a major component of the ECM for cartilage and bone. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


10. Which collagen type is most rigid and is very abundant in bones and tendons? 
 A. Type I 
 B. Type II 
 C. Type III 
 D. Type IV 
 E. Type V 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


11. Which ECM molecule provides structure while allowing certain tissues to expand and contract (e.g., lungs during breathing, intestine during digestion)? 
 A. collagen 
 B. elastin 
 C. fibronectin 
 D. laminin 
 E. glycosaminoglycans 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!174

12. This polysaccharide is an important ECM component for the exoskeleton of many insects and shellfish. 
 A. proteoglycan 
 B. glycosaminoglycans 
 C. collagen 
 D. chitin 
 E. laminin 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


13. Which of the following statements about proteoglycans is TRUE? 
 A. Proteoglycans are composed of collagen. 
 B. Proteoglycans are composed of polysaccharides called glycosaminoglycans. 
 C. Proteoglycans provide resistance to compression. 
 D. Proteoglycans are both composed of collagen and provide resistance to compression. 
 E. Proteoglycans are both composed of polysaccharides called glycosaminoglycans and provide resistance to compression. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


14. Which of the following ECM molecules is probably the most abundant organic molecule on Earth? 
 A. proteoglycans 
 B. collagen 
 C. chitin 
 D. cellulose 
 E. laminins 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!175

15. Which of the following statements about the cell wall is FALSE? 
 A. The cell wall constitutes the ECM of plants. 
 B. The cell wall is composed predominantly of proteins. 
 C. The cell wall provides protection, rigidity, and shape to plant cells. 
 D. The cell wall is composed of two distinct layers. 
 E. The cell wall is composed mainly of carbohydrates. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


16. All of the following statements about cellulose are true EXCEPT: 
 A. Cellulose is composed of fibers of carbohydrates. 
 B. Cellulose is an important source of plant fiber for our diet. 
 C. Cellulose is the primary molecule found in wood. 
 D. Cellulose is one of the most abundant organic molecules on Earth. 
 E. Certain animals like ourselves can easily digest cellulose and use it as a source of energy. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


17. Which of the following forms a protective layer outside of the plasma membrane of the plant cell? 
 A. cell wall 
 B. cellulose 
 C. chitin 
 D. pectin 
 E. proteoglycans 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 10.05
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


1-!176

18. Which of the following is NOT a function of cellular junctions? 
 A. Cellular junctions hold adjacent cells together. 
 B. Cellular junctions prevent leakage of materials between cell layers. 
 C. Cellular junctions permit the direct exchange of small molecules between cytosol of adjacent cells. 
 D. Cellular junctions bond cells to their ECM. 
 E. Cellular junctions promote the motility of adjacent cells. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


19. All of the following represent anchoring junctions EXCEPT 
 A. tight junctions. 
 B. focal adhesions. 
 C. hemidesmosomes. 
 D. desmosomes. 
 E. adherens junctions. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 10.07
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


20. These act as rivets anchoring adjacent cells together at spots throughout the cell. 
 A. adherens junctions 
 B. desmosomes 
 C. hemidesmosomes 
 D. focal adhesions 
 E. fibronectin 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 10.07
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!177

21. These anchorage junctions interact with intermediate filaments and anchor cells to the extracellular matrix. 
 A. adherens junctions 
 B. desmosomes 
 C. hemidesmosomes 
 D. focal adhesions 
 E. fibronectin 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 10.07
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


22. Which of the following statements comparing hemidesmosomes with desmosomes is TRUE? 
 A. Hemidesmosomes are anchorage junctions but desmosomes are not. 
 B. Hemidesmosomes interact with actin filaments while desmosomes interact with intermediate filaments. 
 C. Both hemidesmosomes and desmosomes associate with integrin, but not cadherin molecules. 
 D. Hemidesmosomes anchor cells to the ECM while desmosomes anchor cells to other cells. 
 E. Hemidesmosomes are found in plant cells while desmosomes are found in animal cells. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


23. Which of the following is NOT a component of focal adhesions? 
 A. cadherins 
 B. integrins 
 C. actin filaments 
 D. linker protein 
 E. fibronectin/collagen 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!178

24. All of the following are components of the adherens junction complex EXCEPT 
 A. cadherins. 
 B. Ca2+. 
 C. intermediate filaments. 
 D. linker protein. 
 E. actin filaments. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


25. Which of the following cell junctions would function the LEAST like glue? 
 A. gap junctions 
 B. adherens junctions 
 C. focal adhesions 
 D. hemidesmosomes 
 E. desmosomes 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


26. This forms a seal that prevents the movement of substances between cells, for instance from the intestinal lumen into the blood. 
 A. gap junctions 
 B. tight junctions 
 C. desmosomes 
 D. hemidesmosomes 
 E. focal adhesions 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 10.09
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


1-!179

27. Gap junctions are to animal cells as ________ are to plant cells? 
 A. middle lamella 
 B. hemidesmosomes 
 C. plasmodesmata 
 D. primary cell walls 
 E. tight junctions 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Figure: 10.11
 Figure: 10.14
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


28. What structure cements plant cells together? 
 A. middle lamella 
 B. hemidesmosomes 
 C. plasmodesmata 
 D. primary cell walls 
 E. adherens junctions 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 10.13
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


29. One can inject dyes of different sizes into a liver cell and determine those molecules that can readily through gap junctions. What sized molecules can through gap junctions? 
 A. <1,000 Daltons 
 B. >1,000 Daltons, but <1,500 Daltons 
 C. >1,500 Daltons, but <5,000 Daltons 
 D. >5,000 Daltons, but <10,000 Daltons 
 E. >10,000 Daltons 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


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30. Which of the cell adhesion molecules is critical to transducing changes in the ECM to a change in the cell? 
 A. connexins 
 B. cadherins 
 C. integrins 
 D. fibronectins 
 E. claudins 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Figure: 10.08
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


31. Which molecules are essential components of tight junctions? 
 A. cadherins and connexins 
 B. cadherins and integrins 
 C. claudins and integrins 
 D. cadherins and claudins 
 E. connexins and claudins 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


32. Which of the following junctions are important for cell signaling? 
 A. adherins junctions 
 B. gap junctions 
 C. plasmodesmata 
 D. desmosomes 
 E. All of the choices are correct. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


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33. A group of cells having similar structure and function is called a(n) 
 A. tissue. 
 B. organ. 
 C. organ system. 
 D. organism. 
 E. population. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


34. The heart is a(n) ________ composed mainly of ________ tissue? 
 A. tissue, cardiac 
 B. organ, muscle 
 C. tissue, connective 
 D. organ, connective 
 E. organ, epithelial 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


35. Which of the following basic cell processes is NOT required for creating a tissue? 
 A. cell division and differentiation 
 B. cell connections 
 C. cell morphology 
 D. cell death 
 E. cell migration 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


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36. This type of tissue is rich in extracellular matrix and includes tendon and cartilage. 
 A. muscle 
 B. connective 
 C. epithelial 
 D. nervous 
 E. hepatic 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


37. Which of the following tissue type covers or forms the lining of all internal and external body surfaces? 
 A. muscle 
 B. connective 
 C. epithelial 
 D. nervous 
 E. hepatic 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


38. The epithelial tissue of animal cells is most similar to the ________ of plant cells? 
 A. xylem 
 B. vascular 
 C. dermal 
 D. ground 
 E. phloem 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


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39. Which type of tissue constitutes most of the wood of a tree trunk? 
 A. dermal tissue 
 B. parenchyma tissue 
 C. collenchyma tissue 
 D. sclerenchyma tissue 
 E. vascular tissue 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


40. Which of the following is TRUE of cork? 
 A. It represents the major dermal tissue in bark. 
 B. It helps transport nutrients and fluid. 
 C. It serves a protective function 
 D. It both represents the major dermal tissue in bark and helps transport nutrients and fluid. 
 E. It both represents the major dermal tissue in bark and serves a protective function. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells





True / False Questions


41. Cells can sense changes in the environment through alterations in the extracellular matrix. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


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42. Wrinkling observed with aging is do to low production of the extracellular matrix molecule, fibronectin. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


43. Blood vessels that can expand and contract are largely composed of collagen as a structural extracellular matrix protein. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


44. Glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans resist compression and are found in large abundance in ts of the body. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


45. Cellulose from the cell wall is a primary energy store for plants. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.01
 Topic: Cells


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46. Rivets hold steel structures together much in the same way as tight junctions hold cells together. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


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47. Integrin is a membrane protein that integrates changes in the ECM to alterations in movement or behavior of the cell. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


48. Unlike animals, plants lack a cell junction where small molecules can move from one cell to another cell. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.02
 Topic: Cells


49. The heart, skeletal muscles, and blood vessels all share a common feature in that they are composed of muscle tissue. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


50. The most prominent tissue type present in plants is the dermis. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 10.03
 Topic: Cells


Chapter 11 Test Bank: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and Chromosome Structure

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Multiple Choice Questions


1. Type S Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium is lethal and will kill its host. If heat inactivated the S strain becomes nonlethal. Type R Streptococcous pneumoniae is a nonvirulent strain of bacteria. What would occur if one were to inject both the R strain and heat-killed S strains into a host organism such as the mouse? 
 A. The S strain would be transformed into the nonvirulent R strain and kill the host.
 B. The R strain would be transformed into the virulent S strain and kill the host.
 C. The S strain would be transformed into the nonvirulent R strain and not affect the host.
 D. The R strain would be transformed into the virulent S strain and not affect the host.
 E. Neither the S nor the R strain would change. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


2. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for an organism's genetic material? 
 A. The genetic material must contain information necessary to construct a whole organism.
 B. The genetic material must be transmitted from parent to offspring.
 C. To transmit information the genetic material must be replicated.
 D. The genetic material must be dynamic, changing rapidly in response to changes in the environment.
 E. Genetic material must for the known variation within each species and among different species. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


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3. Which of the following would represent the "transformation principal" first proposed by Griffith through his studies on Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium? 
 A. protein
 B. RNA
 C. DNA
 D. phage
 E. bateriophage 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


4. Who discovered that DNA was the genetic material or transforming factor that could convert nonvirulent R-type Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium to the virulent S-type? 
 A. Weismann and Nageli
 B. Griffith
 C. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
 D. Hershey and Chase
 E. Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and Franklin 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


5. The protein of T2 bacteriophage is labeled with 35S and the DNA with 32P. Where would one detect most of the 32P if the T2 bacteriophage were allowed to infect the bacteria? 
 A. on the phage coat surrounding the T2 bacteriophage
 B. on the membrane of the infected bacteria
 C. inside the T2 bacteriophage capsid
 D. inside the infected bacteria
 E. The 32P would be equally distributed within the T2 bacteriophage and infected bacteria. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


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6. Which of the following scientist-discoveries is mismatched? 
 A. Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and Franklin-DNA structure
 B. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty-DNA is the genetic material
 C. Meselson and Stahl-mechanism of DNA replication
 D. Griffith-chromosomes
 E. Hershey and Chase-DNA is the genetic material of bacteriophage 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


7. Which of the following relationships about nucleotide composition in DNA is TRUE? 
 A. C+G=A+T
 B. C+A=G+T
 C. C=A
 D. G=T
 E. C=T 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


8. ___________ are the building blocks of DNA. 
 A. genes 
 B. double helices 
 C. amino acids 
 D. nucleotides 
 E. chromosomes 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


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9. Which of the following is the highest (or most complex) level of structure for genetic material? 
 A. nucleotide
 B. double helix
 C. DNA
 D. gene
 E. chromosome 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


10. Beginning with the simplest level of structure, which order of organization of genetic material is CORRECT? 
 A. DNA, nucleotide, gene, genome, chromosome
 B. nucleotide, DNA, gene, chromosome, genome
 C. DNA, nucleotide, gene, chromosome, genome
 D. nucleotide, DNA, gene, genome, chromosome
 E. nucleotide, DNA, chromosome, gene, genome 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


11. The nucleotides within DNA are composed of a 
 A. phosphate group, ribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
 B. sulfur group, ribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
 C. phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
 D. sulfur group, deoxyribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
 E. phosphate group, hexose sugar, and nitrogenous base. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


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12. All of the following nucleotide bases are pyrimidines EXCEPT 
 A. adenine.
 B. thymine.
 C. cytosine.
 D. uracil.
 E. cytosine and thymine. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


13. Which of the following is FALSE when comparing RNA and DNA? 
 A. Both are produced by phosphodiester linkages.
 B. Both are composed of phosphate groups.
 C. Both are composed of sugars.
 D. Both are composed of identical nucleotides.
 E. Both are composed of a phosphate group, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


14. One of the most critical pieces of evidence to the discovery of DNA structure was 
 A. its composition of four different nucleotides.
 B. its mode of replication.
 C. an X-ray diffraction pattern suggesting a double helix shape.
 D. the backbone containing sugar-phosphate linkages.
 E. the covalent bonding between different nucleotides. 
 Bloom's Level: Evaluation
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


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15. Which of the following statements about the structure or composition of DNA is FALSE? 
 A. DNA is a double helix.
 B. Complementary base-pairing occurs between pyrimidine and purine bases.
 C. The amount of thymine closely approximates that of guanine within a particular organism.
 D. Each nucleotide within a DNA is separated by about 0.34 angstroms.
 E. Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine with cytosine. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


16. What is the complement DNA strand to 5′-ATTCGGTGA-3′? 
 A. 5′-TAAGCCACT-3′
 B. 3′-CGGATTGTC-5′
 C. 5′-CGGATTGTC-3′
 D. 3′-TAAGCCACT-5′
 E. 3′-ATTCGGTGA-5′ 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


17. A DNA specimen that contains 30% guanine has ________ thymine. 
 A. 15%
 B. 20%
 C. 30%
 D. 60%
 E. The amount of thymine cannot be determined. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


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18. Which purine base forms 3 hydrogen bonds when binding its complementary nucleotide base? 
 A. guanine
 B. cytosine
 C. thymine
 D. uracil
 E. adenine 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


19. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that can synthesize DNA from an RNA template. What DNA sequence is produced from an RNA molecule with the sequence AUUGACGGU? 
 A. UAACUGCCA
 B. TTTCTGCCT
 C. TAACTGCCA
 D. ATTCAGCCT
 E. TUUCTGCCU 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


20. In producing a strand of DNA the nucleotides combine to form what type of bond? 
 A. hydrogen
 B. peptide
 C. phosphodiester
 D. purine
 E. ionic 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.03
 Topic: Genetic


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21. The mechanism of DNA replication is 
 A. conservative.
 B. intermediate.
 C. semiconservative.
 D. dispersive.
 E. complementary. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.03
 Topic: Genetic


22. Bacteria are grown in 15N (heavy) medium and then transferred to 14N (light) medium and allowed to replicate for 1 generation. The DNA is subsequently isolated and centrifuged in a CsCl2 gradient to yield what type of gradient band(s)? 
 A. one heavy band
 B. one light band
 C. one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light) band
 D. one heavy and one half-heavy band
 E. one heavy and one light band 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.03
 Topic: Genetic


23. Bacteria are grown in 15N (heavy) medium and then transferred to 14N (light) medium and allowed to replicate for 2 generations. The DNA is subsequently isolated and centrifuged in a CsCl2 gradient to yield what type of gradient band(s)? 
 A. one heavy band
 B. one light band
 C. one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light) band
 D. one heavy and one half-heavy band
 E. one light and one half-heavy band 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.03
 Topic: Genetic


1-!195

24. Which of the following does NOT belong with the others? 
 A. replication fork
 B. single-stranded binding proteins
 C. DNA ligase
 D. topoisomerase
 E. helicase 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


25. During DNA replication, all of the following proteins are important for separating the DNA strands and allowing movement of the replication fork EXCEPT 
 A. DNA polymerase.
 B. helicase.
 C. topoisomerase.
 D. single-stranded binding proteins.
 E. both helicase and topoisomerase. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


26. How many replication forks are there at a replication origin? 
 A. 1
 B. 2
 C. 3
 D. 4
 E. 5 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


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27. Unlike the leading strand, ______________ are made in replicating the lagging strand of DNA. 
 A. primers 
 B. nucleases 
 C. Okazaki fragments 
 D. pyrophosphates 
 E. DNA polymerases need space for the term "Okazaki fragment"to be a subject for the second half of the sentence. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


28. Which of the following statements best describes DNA polymerase? 
 A. It is an enzyme required to produce a primer needed for DNA replication. 
 B. It is an enzyme that catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the 5′ end of a growing DNA strand. 
 C. It is an enzyme that requires the presence of a small double-stranded nucleic acid primer to catalyze the addition of nucleotides to the 3′ end of a growing DNA strand. 
 D. It is an enzyme required to glue pieces of DNA fragments together. 
 E. It is an enzyme that polymerizes to the DNA and keeps the replication fork open. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


29. This molecule catalyzes covalent bond formation between fragments of DNA. 
 A. helicase 
 B. ligase 
 C. polymerase 
 D. primase 
 E. nuclease 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


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30. All of the following are critical factors for DNA replication on the leading strand EXCEPT? 
 A. primer 
 B. DNA ligase 
 C. DNA polymerase 
 D. DNA primase 
 E. deoxynucleoside triphosphates 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


31. Which molecule is responsible for separating double-stranded DNA into single strands? 
 A. DNA primase 
 B. DNA helicase 
 C. topoisomerase 
 D. DNA ligase 
 E. single-stranded binding proteins 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


32. produces short sequences of RNA, which allows polymerase to synthesize a new strand of DNA. 
 A. DNA primase 
 B. DNA helicase 
 C. DNA polymerase 
 D. DNA topoisomerase 
 E. DNA ligase 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


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33. The function(s) of DNA polymerase includes which of the following? 
 A. DNA synthesis 
 B. DNA proofreading 
 C. removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps 
 D. DNA synthesis and proofreading 
 E. DNA synthesis, DNA proofreading, and removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


34. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is INCORRECT? 
 A. It begins at multiple origins of replication sites along eukaryotic chromosomes. 
 B. It proceeds with the addition of new nucleotides to the 3′ end of a growing DNA strand. 
 C. It is powered by the hydrolysis of ATP. 
 D. Each strand within the DNA double helix is used as a template for synthesis of a new strand. 
 E. It requires that each strand in the double helix be separated from the other. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


35. Which of the following proteins-functions is mismatched? 
 A. DNA polymerase-DNA synthesis 
 B. DNA polymerase-primer removal and replacement with DNA 
 C. DNA primase-production of RNA primer 
 D. topoisomerase-separates double-stranded DNA into single strands 
 E. single-stranded binding proteins-prevents single DNA strands from reforming into a double helix 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


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36. Why is there a need to produce Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand, but not on the leading strand of DNA? 
 A. The two parental strands of DNA are antiparallel and DNA polymerase makes DNA in the 5′ to 3′ direction only. 
 B. It is substantially more efficient to make several shorter strands rather than one longer strand of DNA. 
 C. There lacks enough cellular DNA ligase for bonding Okazaki fragments together if they were produced from both parental strands. 
 D. By having one leading strand and one lagging strand the cell can limit the amount of DNA polymerase used for chromosomal replication. 
 E. It is faster to make several smaller fragments than one larger fragment. 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


37. ________ attaches DNA sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. 
 A. Polymerase
 B. Ligase
 C. Telomerase
 D. Topoisomerase
 E. Primase 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


38. Which of the following statements about telomeres is INCORRECT? 
 A. Telomeres are produced by telomerase.
 B. Telomeres are found at the ends of DNA.
 C. Telomeres are short repeat sequences.
 D. Telomeres would predominate more in cells of older than younger individuals.
 E. Telomeres are crucial to the viability of a cell that replicates often. 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


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39. Where would one expect to find the most telomerase? 
 A. male germ cells that give rise to gametes
 B. skin cells from a 60-year-old individual
 C. skin cells from a 2-year-old individual
 D. a nerve cell from a 60-year-old individual
 E. a nerve cell from a 2-year-old individual 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


40. During the DNA replication process, which of the following organisms would have the fewest origins of replication per cell? 
 A. a rapidly dividing Streptococcus bacterium
 B. a yeast cell
 C. a human
 D. a young oak tree
 E. a fruit fly 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic





True / False Questions


41. Studies by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of bacteria and those by Hershey and Chase with T2 bacteriophage determined that proteins are highly complex molecules that form the genetic material for bacteria and viruses. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


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42. A strand of DNA is composed of nucleotide bases, sulfate groups, and sugars. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


43. When considering the complexity of genetic material, multiple genes are found within a chromosome. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.05
 Topic: Genetic


44. If there is 28% adenine, then there must be 28% cytosine for the DNA composition of a particular organism. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


45. DNA is a double helix structure whose strands are held together by hydrogen bonds with A to T and C to G base pairing. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


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46. DNA helicase and topoisomerase are similar insofar as they promote the unwinding and uncoiling of DNA. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: Understand
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


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47. 35Sulfur (35S) would be a better isotope than 32phosphate (32P) to track DNA synthesis. 
 FALSE


 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 11.01
 Topic: Genetic


48. If the sequence for one strand of DNA is 3′-TCGATT-5′ then its complementary strand would have a sequence of 3′-AGCTAA-5′. 
 FALSE 
 Bloom's Level: Apply
 Section: 11.02
 Topic: Genetic


49. Okazaki fragments are sequences of DNA most often found on the lagging strand of DNA during DNA replication. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


50. The progressive shortening of telomeres in DNA correlates with cell senescence. 
 TRUE 
 Bloom's Level: 
 Section: 11.04
 Topic: Genetic


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