Istqb Chapter 1 Questions 4c5q55
This document was ed by and they confirmed that they have the permission to share it. If you are author or own the copyright of this book, please report to us by using this report form. Report 3b7i
Overview 3e4r5l
& View Istqb Chapter 1 Questions as PDF for free.
More details w3441
- Words: 7,579
- Pages: 31
Online: http://www.testingexcellence.com/istqb-quiz/
Chapter 1 --fundamentals Of Testing 1. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following statements about 'Quality' is CORRECT ? Quality is fitness for use. Quality is measured at looking at the attributes of the product. Quality is based on good manufacturing processes , and meeting defined requirements. All of the above.
2. A. B. C. D.
What is the impact on the cost of defects as we move across the SDLC ? Increases Decreases Can't be determined Remains stagnent
3. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following is NOT the objective of testing? Determine that the software products satisfy specific requirements. Make the software BUG FREE ! Detect Defects Gaining confidence in and providing information about the level of quality.
4. A. B. C. D.
What is the process of analyzing and removing causes of failures in the software ? Bebugging Failure Validation Debugging
5. Which of the following is TRUE about Error Seeding? A. It is similar to debugging. B. A flaw in the component/system that can cause the component/system to fail to perform its required function C. The process of intentionally adding known defects to those already in the component/system . D. A human action that produces an incorrect result. 6. A. B. C. D.
Which of the problems below BEST characterizes a result of software failure ? Regulatory compliance Lack of methodology Damaged Reputation Inadequate training
7. Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that can lead to faulty software ? I. Aggressive timeline II. Complicated code III.Rapid technological changes IV.Adequate resources. A. I , II , III are True ; IV is Untrue B. II , IV are True ; I , III are Untrue C. I , IV are True ; II , III are Untrue D. I , II , IV are True ; III is Un true 8. Which strategies can help improve the quality of the software? a. Preventing change requests
b. Establishing defect metrics. c. Doing rigorous testing. d. Allocating schedule contingencies. A. B. C. D.
b, d are correct ; a,c are incorrect a, d are correct ; b, c are incorrect b , c are correct ; a, d are incorrect a,b,c are correct ; d is incorrect
9. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following is NOT a Testing principle ? Testing can prove that there are no defects. Testing activities should start as early as possible in the SDLC. Testing is done diffrently in different contexts. Testing everything is not feasible except in trivial cases.
10. What are the activities in the fundamental test process placed in correct order ? A. planning and control ; implementation and execution ; analysis and design ; test closure activities; evaluating exit criteria and reporting B. planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation ; execution ; test closure activities C. planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation and execution ; evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities D. planning and control ; analysis and design ; evaluating exit criteria ; implementation ; test closure activities 11. In which of the following test process we make sure that we understand the goals and objectives of the customers ? A. Implementation and execution B. Test planning and control C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting D. Analysis and design 12. Which of the folllowing is NOT the goal and objective of the Test implementation and analysis test process? A. Develope and prioritize the test cases. B. Create test suites form tes cases. C. Identify test conditions D. Compare actual results with the expected results. 13. What are the levels of indepedence sequenced from the lowest to the highest level ? A. Tests by another person within the same team ; Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by the person from a different organizational group. B. Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by the person from a different organizational group; Tests by another person within the same team. C. Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by another person within the same team; Tests by the person from a different organizational group. D. None of the above. 14. What principles do "avoiding author bias" and "communicating problems constructively" represent? A. Experienced-based testing and interoperability testing B. Criticism avoidance and effective relationships. C. Independent testing and good interpersonal skills. D. Preventive testing and good interpersonal skills 15.
Which of the following is the MAJOR task when evaluating the exit criteria ?
A. B. C. D.
Initiate corrective actions Measure and analyze the results of reviews and testing. Develop and prioritize the test cases Write test summary report
16. A. B. C. D.
What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party? Integration Testing Independent testing Interoperability testing Exploratory testing
17. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following is correct? Debugging is: Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix. Testing that a previously reported bug has been corrected. Testing whether the software performs correctly. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code, and checking the fix is correct.
18. A. B. C. D.
Which statement is MOST true? A technique that finds defects will always find defects. All software is tested in the same way. A technique that has found no defects is not useful. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.
19. Which list of levels of tester independence is in correct order, starting with the most independent first? A. Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team; tests designed by someone from a different company. B. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company. C. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team. D. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by a author. 20. Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it? i) Try to understand what other person feels. ii)Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals. iii) Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa. iv) Emphasize the common goal of better quality. v) Each discussion is a battle to be won. A. B. C. D.
ii, iii, iv aid ; i, v hinder i, ii, iii aid; iv, v hinder iii, iv, v aid; i,ii hinder i, iii, iv aid; ii, v hinder
21. The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in correct order? A. Implementation and execution; planning and control; analysis and design B. Analysis and design; evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting; implementation and execution; analysis and design D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities; analysis and design 22. A.
When is testing complete? When time and budget are exhausted.
B. C. D.
When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding. When every data combination is exercised correctly.
23. Which pair of definitions is correct? A. Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; confirmation testing is testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software. B. Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software; confirmation testing enables developers to isolate the problem. C. Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; confirmation testing runs new tests. D. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, confirmation testing is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed. 24. Ensuring that the test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives? A. Finishing the project on time. B. Gaining confidence in the system. C. Preventing defects in the system. D. Finding defects through dynamic testing. 25. Which option is part of the implementation and execution area of the fundamental test process? A. Developing the tests. B. Comparing actual and expected results. C. Writing a test summary report. D. Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases. 26. Which bug causes a failure? a) Software b) Configuration c) Documentation d) Requirements 27. The deviation from the requirements which is visible to end-s is a) Error b) Fault c) Mistake d) Failure 28. Which of the following requirements is testable? a) The system shall be friendly. b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults. c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load. d) The system shall be built to be portabl 29. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to: a) find as many faults as possible. b) test high risk areas. c) obtain good test coverage. d) test whatever is easiest to tes
30. Enough testing has been performed when: a) time runs out. b) the required level of confidence has been achieved. c) no more faults are found. d) the s won’t find any serious fault 31. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults? a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then. c) Faults are costlier to find in the early development phases but the most cheap to fix then. d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then 32. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? a) To find faults in the software. b) To assess whether the software is ready for release. c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work. d) To prove that the software is correct 33. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle? a) It allows the identification of changes in requirements. b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment. c) It reduces defect multiplication. d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project 34. A failure is: a) found in the software; the result of an error. b) departure from specified behaviour. c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program. d) a human action that produces an incorrect resul 35. The most important thing about early test design is that it: a) makes test preparation easier. b) means inspections are not required. c) can prevent fault multiplication. d) will find all faults 36. Faults found by s are due to: a. Poor quality software b. Poor software and poor testing c. bad luck d. insufficient time for testing 37. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it? a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release c. to find as many bugs as possible before release d. to give information for a risk based decision about release 38. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why? a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing. b. wages are rising c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc d. none of the above 39. Which is not true-The black box tester a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document b. should be able to understand the source code. c. is highly motivated to find faults d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses 40. Which of the following statements are true? a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix. b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix. c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix
16. Pick the best definition of quality a. Quality is job one b. Zero defects c. Conformance to requirements d. Work as designed 17. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is : a. Lack of technical documentation b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers c. Lack of training d. Lack of Objectivity 18. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start? a. When the code is complete. b. When the design is complete. c. When the draft versions of software requirements are available d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing 19. “How much testing is enough?” a. This question is impossible to answer b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
ISTQB sample questions Chapter 1
1.Test granularity refers to: A. The impact of a bug on the system under test. B. A quality improvement idea common in software development. C. Any way of determining the expected result for a test case. D. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus. D. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus.
2.The prime benefit of testing is that it results in improved defects a. True b. False b. False
3.A bug report is a: A. A & B B. A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug. C. A collection of independent, reusable test cases. D. A deliverable that details the strategic approach to a testing effort B. A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug.
4.A software error can be described as: A. A mismatch between the program and its specification. B. Any ill-advised, substandard, or temporary fix
applied to an urgent problem in the (often misguided) belief that doing so will keep a project moving forward. C. A description of the relationship between two or more variables or set in which the value of one does not influence the values of others. D. The process in which developers determine the root cause of a bug and identify possible fixes. A. A mismatch between the program and its specification.
5.Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is impossible: A. The interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely test. B. Limited financial resources. C. The domain of possible inputs is too large to test . D. There are too many possible paths through the program to test. B. Limited financial resources.
6.Testing looks for situations in which a product fails to meet the developer’s expectations in specific areas. a. True b. False b. False
7.Select a reason that does not the idea of using separate test plans for test subprojects that are distinct in one or more ways: A. Different objectives B. Different audiences C. Different time periods D. Different methodologies E. Different resources
E. Different resources
8.The testing effort begins with A. B & C B. A & B C. Test planning D. Test execution E. Test case design B. A & B
9.Testing during the design stage involves: A. Acceptance or qualification testing B. Reading drafts of the planning documents C. Examining the design documents d. None of the above C. Examining the design documents
10. A well-designed test system promotes: A. ability B. Actions C. Principles D. Resources A. ability
11. When testing operating systems or applications, the first step of testing a new build should consist of : A. A & B B. Updating requirements C. Notifying test lead D. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures D. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures
12. The general rule of test execution is that you must always create a test procedure that will force the
program to use the data you’ve entered and to prove that it is using your data correctly. a. True b. False a. True
13. Which is not a goal of writing effective Problem/Bug reports? A. Write a report that is complete, easy to understand, and non-antagonistic B. Explain how to reproduce the problem C. Illustrate how to fix the problem D. Analyze the error so you can describe it in a minimum number of steps C. Illustrate how to fix the problem
14. Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team? A. The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release. B. The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test. C. All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes D. Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times. B. The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test.
15. The daily closure period refers to: A. The average number of days between the opening of
a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day. B. The amount of bugs opened over a 24 hour period C. The average for all closed bugs, including the current day and all previous days d. None of the Above A. The average number of days between the opening of a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day.
16. Integrity testing involves: A. The final phase of testing prior to deployment B. Performance testing C. The testing of pseudo code D. Alpha testing A. The final phase of testing prior to deployment
17. Testing literature reflects and promotes a strongly held belief that product reliability will not be better if testing is done by a fully independent test agency. a. True b. False b. False
18. Select the item(s) that are general testing principles: a. Testing shows a presence of defects b. Exhaustive testing is impossible c. Automation tools can be a great strategy d. Absence-of-errors fallacy o a. Testing shows a presence of defects o b. Exhaustive testing is impossible o d. Absence-of-errors fallacy
19. Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution: A. ing that the test environment has been set up correctly B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware. C. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts. D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
20. Select the item(s) that compose test objectives: a. Finding defects b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information c. Preventing defects d. Utilization of testware o a. Finding defects o b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information o c. Preventing defects
21. A bug or defect is: A. the result of a failure, which may lead to an error B. a run-time problem experienced by a C. a mistake made by a person D. the result of an error or mistake; D. the result of an error or mistake;
22. The effect of testing is to: A. show there are no problems remaining? B.give an indication of the software quality; C. increase software quality; D. enable those responsible for software failures to be identified; B. give an indication of the software quality;
23. What is retesting? A. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved. B. A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced. C. Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem. D. Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met. A. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.
24. Debugging is: A. Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix. B. Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected. C. Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly. D. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct. D. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.
(a. is a brief definition of testing. b. is restesting, and d. is regression testiong.)
25. Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it? i. Try to understand how the other person feels. ii. Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals. iii. Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa. iv. Emphasise the common goal of better quality. v. Each discussion is a battle to be won. A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) aid, (i) and (v) hinder. B. (iii), (iv) and (v) aid, (i) and (ii) hinder. C. (i), (ii) and (iii) aid, (iv) and (v) hinder. D. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder. D. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder.
26. Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process? A. Analysing lessons learnt for future releases. B. Comparing actual and expected results. C. Developing the tests. D. Writing a test summary. B. Comparing actual and expected results. (a. is part of Analysis and design, c. is part of 'evaluating exit criteria and reporting', and d. is part of 'Test closure activities')
27. The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order? A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.
B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities. C. Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design. D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design. B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
28. Which pair of definitions is correct? A. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed. B. Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software; retesting enables developers to isolate the problem. C. Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; retesting is testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software. D. Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; retesting runs new tests. A. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed.
29. Which statement is most true? A. A technique that has found no defects is not useful. B. All software is tested in the same way. C. Different testing is needed depending upon the application. D. A technique that finds defects will always find defects.
C. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.
30. When is testing complete? A. When every data combination has been exercised successfully. B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. C. When time and budget are exhausted. D. When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding. B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. (Sometimes time and money does signify the end of testing, but it is really complete when everything that was set out in advance has been achieved)
31. Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first? A. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by the author. B. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company. C. Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team; tests designed by someone from a different company. D. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.
D. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.
32. The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process. i. Evaluating the testability of requirements. ii. Repeating testing activities after changes. iii. Deg the test environment set-up. iv. Developing and prioritising test cases. v. ing the environment is set up correctly. Which statement below is TRUE? A. (i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution. B. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution. C. (i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution. D. (i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution. B. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
33. Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics? A. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest. B. Public: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest. Profession: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
C. Public: Certified software testers shall act in the best interests of their client and employer (being consistent with the wider public interest). Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest. D. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall participate in lifelong learning regarding the practice of their profession and shall promote an ethical approach to the practice of their profession. A. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest. Home > Print Preview Question Excerpt 1. Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
A Test principles only affect the preparation for testing. . B Test principles only affect test execution activities. . C Test principles affect the early test activities such as review. . D Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle. . 2. A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the s are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed? A Absence-of-errors fallacy . B Exhaustive testing is impossible . C Defect clustering . D Pesticide paradox .
3. Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
A Understanding what managers value about testing. . B Explaining test results in a neutral fashion. . C Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs. . D Promoting better quality software whenever possible. .
4. According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word "bug" is synomous with which of the following words?
A Incident . B.Defect C Mistake . D.Error
5. According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
A Negative to the tester. . B Negative consequences that will occur. . C Negative consequences that could occur . D Negative consequences for the test object. . 6. A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test again the package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing? A To build confidence in the application . B To detect bugs in the application . C.To gather evidence for a lawsuit D To train the s .
7. Ensuring that a test design start during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
A Preventing defects in the system. . B Finding defects through dynamic testing. . C Gaining confidence in the system. . D Finishing the project on time. .
8. According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
A To the success of corrective actions. . B To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed. . C To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification. . D To motivate better unit testing by the programmers. .
Questions Q1 Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process. (i) Test Implementation and Execution (ii) Test Closure activities (iii) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting (iv) Test Planning and Control (v) Test Analysis and Design (A) iv - v - iii - ii - i (C) iv - v - i - iii - ii
(B) v - i - iii - ii - iv (D) v - ii - iii - i - iv
Correc t Ans Correc t Ans :C
Correc t Ans :A
Q3 What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process? a. Analyze the test basis documents. b. Define the expected results. c. Create the test execution schedule. d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions (A) d, a, c, b (C) a, b, c, d
Correc t Ans :B
(B) a, d, b, c (D) a, b, d, c
Q4 Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning? a. Scheduling test analysis and design. b. Deg Test Conditions. c. Monitoring test progress. d. Identifying the objectives of testing. e. Evaluating test tools. f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.
Correc t Ans :B
(A) b, c and d (B) a, d and f (C) a, d and e (D) b, c and f Correc t Ans :C Q6 What should be taken into to determine when to stop testing? Correc I. Technical risk t II. Business risk Ans :D III Project constraints IV Product documentation (A) I and II are true. III and N are false (B) III is true, I, II, and IV are false (C) I, II, and IV are true; III is false (D) I, II, and III are true, IV is false.
Correc t Ans :B
Correc t Ans :D Q9 Which of the following is true? Correc (A) Component testing should be black box, system testing should be t white box. (B) If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very Ans :B confident about the quality of software. (C) The fewer bugs you find, the better your testing was (D) The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find. Correc t Ans :C Correc t Ans :A Q12 Which of the following could be a reason for a failure 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Environment Fault 5) Documentation Fault (A) 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not (B) 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not (C) 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not (D) All of them are valid reasons for failure.
Correc t Ans :D
Correc t Ans :C Correc t Ans :B Q15 Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?
Correc t Ans :B
(A) Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products. (B) For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations. (C) Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool , feasible for all software. (D) The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products. Correc t Ans :D
Correc t Ans :D Correc t Ans :C Correc t Ans :A
Correc t Ans :A
Questions
Q22 Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Asg resources. iv) Building the test environment . v) Writing test conditions.
Correc t Ans Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :B
(A) i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. (B) . ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false. (C) . iv& v are true, i, ii & iii are false. (D) i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false. Correct Ans :B
Correct Ans :C
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :C
Correct Ans :B
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :B
Correct Ans :B
Q39 Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major Correct tasks? Ans :A i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. ing that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria. (A) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false (B) i,iv are true and ii is false (C) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false (D) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Correct Ans :C
xams of Chapter I Các bạn có thể tham khảo toàn bộ câu hỏi ở đây istqb questions Question 1 A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
a. To build confidence in the application.
b. To detect bugs in the application.
c. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
d. To train the s. Question 2 According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word ‘bug’ is synonymous with which of the following words?
a. Incident
b. Defect
c. Mistake
d. Error Question 3 According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
a. Negative to the tester.
b. Negative consequences that will occur.
c. Negative consequences that could occur.
d. Negative consequences for the test object.
Question 4 Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
a. Preventing defects in the system.
b. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
c. Gaining confidence in the system.
d. Finishing the project on time. Question 5 A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the s are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
a. Exhaustive testing is impossible
b. Defect clustering
c. Pesticide paradox
d. Absence-of-errors fallacy Question 6 According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
a. To the success of corrective actions.
b. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
c. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
d. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers. Question 7 Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
a. Understanding what managers value about testing.
b. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
c. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
d. Promoting better quality software whenever possible. Question 8 Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
a. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
b. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
c. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
d. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.
his simulator contains following questions:
================================================ Q1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except: a) Test data b) Test data plan c) Test summary report d) Test procedure plan Q2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? a) Schedules and deliverables b) Hardware and software c) Entry and exit criteria d) Types of test cases Q3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are: A. deviations from standards, B.requirement defects, C.design defects, D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E.All of the above. Q4. Load Testing Tools a) reduces the time spent by the testers b) reduces the resources spent (hardware) c) mostly used in web testing d) all of the above Q5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective – A.identifying defects. B. fixing defects. C. 1 and 2 D. None Q6. Defect arrival rate curve: A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time. C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time. D. Any of these, depending on the company. Q7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis? a) The probability the negative event will occur b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b Q8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because: A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF statement, and you got to the statement with a test that ed
through the FALSE branch. B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control. C. Both A and B D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute. Q9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? a. Test manager b. Test engineer c. both A & B d. Project Manager Q10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested b) Use automation tool for testing c) a and b d) None of the above Q11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites a) Interaction between html pages b) Performance on the client side c) Security aspects d) All of the above Q12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand howrequirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategiescan be worked out in advance, if possible. b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into theproject, while moving more difficult new requirements into futureversions of the application c) Both a and b d) None of the above Q13. The selection of test cases for regression testing a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system b) Includes the area of frequent defects c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes d) All of the above Q14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because: A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well. B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result. C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions. D. All of the above. Q15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” a. No, the problem is not with testers b. No, the software is not ready for production c. Both a & b d. none of the above Q16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include: A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparingto do the rest of the project's work more efficiently B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn'talarm them. C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to notreport bugs. D. All of the above Q17. Operations testing is: a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. ing compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations Q18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as a. functional automation tools b. performance testing tools c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above. Q19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free. B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for somemanagers to argue for very little testing. C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks. D. All of the above. Q20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process a) Assess development plan and status b) Develop the test plan c) Test software design d) Test software requirement Q21. In the MASPAR case study: A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code. B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage butmissed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system. C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almostevery input value to find its two special-case failures. D. All of the above. Q22. Complete statement and branch coverage means: A. That you have tested every statement in the program. B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program. C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program. D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program Q23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested b) Use automation tool for testing c) a and b d) None of the above Q24. Security falls under a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. ing compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations Q25. Which is the best definition of complete testing: A. You have discovered every bug in the program. B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in theprogram. C. You have completed every test in the test plan. D. You have reached the scheduled ship date. Q26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having theeffects of that change show up in some test? a) Desk checking b) Debugging a program c) A mutation error d) Performance testing e) Introducing mutations
Answers:
1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - E, 4 - D, 5 - A, 6 - A, 7 - C, 8 - C, 9 - A,
10 - A, 11 - D, 12 - C , , , , , ,
13 - D 14 - A 15 - B, 16 - D 17 - E 18 - C 19 - D
, 20 - C , 21 - C, 22 - B , 23 - A , 24 - A , 25 - D , 26 - E
Chapter 1 --fundamentals Of Testing 1. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following statements about 'Quality' is CORRECT ? Quality is fitness for use. Quality is measured at looking at the attributes of the product. Quality is based on good manufacturing processes , and meeting defined requirements. All of the above.
2. A. B. C. D.
What is the impact on the cost of defects as we move across the SDLC ? Increases Decreases Can't be determined Remains stagnent
3. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following is NOT the objective of testing? Determine that the software products satisfy specific requirements. Make the software BUG FREE ! Detect Defects Gaining confidence in and providing information about the level of quality.
4. A. B. C. D.
What is the process of analyzing and removing causes of failures in the software ? Bebugging Failure Validation Debugging
5. Which of the following is TRUE about Error Seeding? A. It is similar to debugging. B. A flaw in the component/system that can cause the component/system to fail to perform its required function C. The process of intentionally adding known defects to those already in the component/system . D. A human action that produces an incorrect result. 6. A. B. C. D.
Which of the problems below BEST characterizes a result of software failure ? Regulatory compliance Lack of methodology Damaged Reputation Inadequate training
7. Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that can lead to faulty software ? I. Aggressive timeline II. Complicated code III.Rapid technological changes IV.Adequate resources. A. I , II , III are True ; IV is Untrue B. II , IV are True ; I , III are Untrue C. I , IV are True ; II , III are Untrue D. I , II , IV are True ; III is Un true 8. Which strategies can help improve the quality of the software? a. Preventing change requests
b. Establishing defect metrics. c. Doing rigorous testing. d. Allocating schedule contingencies. A. B. C. D.
b, d are correct ; a,c are incorrect a, d are correct ; b, c are incorrect b , c are correct ; a, d are incorrect a,b,c are correct ; d is incorrect
9. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following is NOT a Testing principle ? Testing can prove that there are no defects. Testing activities should start as early as possible in the SDLC. Testing is done diffrently in different contexts. Testing everything is not feasible except in trivial cases.
10. What are the activities in the fundamental test process placed in correct order ? A. planning and control ; implementation and execution ; analysis and design ; test closure activities; evaluating exit criteria and reporting B. planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation ; execution ; test closure activities C. planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation and execution ; evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities D. planning and control ; analysis and design ; evaluating exit criteria ; implementation ; test closure activities 11. In which of the following test process we make sure that we understand the goals and objectives of the customers ? A. Implementation and execution B. Test planning and control C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting D. Analysis and design 12. Which of the folllowing is NOT the goal and objective of the Test implementation and analysis test process? A. Develope and prioritize the test cases. B. Create test suites form tes cases. C. Identify test conditions D. Compare actual results with the expected results. 13. What are the levels of indepedence sequenced from the lowest to the highest level ? A. Tests by another person within the same team ; Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by the person from a different organizational group. B. Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by the person from a different organizational group; Tests by another person within the same team. C. Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by another person within the same team; Tests by the person from a different organizational group. D. None of the above. 14. What principles do "avoiding author bias" and "communicating problems constructively" represent? A. Experienced-based testing and interoperability testing B. Criticism avoidance and effective relationships. C. Independent testing and good interpersonal skills. D. Preventive testing and good interpersonal skills 15.
Which of the following is the MAJOR task when evaluating the exit criteria ?
A. B. C. D.
Initiate corrective actions Measure and analyze the results of reviews and testing. Develop and prioritize the test cases Write test summary report
16. A. B. C. D.
What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party? Integration Testing Independent testing Interoperability testing Exploratory testing
17. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following is correct? Debugging is: Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix. Testing that a previously reported bug has been corrected. Testing whether the software performs correctly. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code, and checking the fix is correct.
18. A. B. C. D.
Which statement is MOST true? A technique that finds defects will always find defects. All software is tested in the same way. A technique that has found no defects is not useful. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.
19. Which list of levels of tester independence is in correct order, starting with the most independent first? A. Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team; tests designed by someone from a different company. B. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company. C. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team. D. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by a author. 20. Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it? i) Try to understand what other person feels. ii)Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals. iii) Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa. iv) Emphasize the common goal of better quality. v) Each discussion is a battle to be won. A. B. C. D.
ii, iii, iv aid ; i, v hinder i, ii, iii aid; iv, v hinder iii, iv, v aid; i,ii hinder i, iii, iv aid; ii, v hinder
21. The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in correct order? A. Implementation and execution; planning and control; analysis and design B. Analysis and design; evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting; implementation and execution; analysis and design D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities; analysis and design 22. A.
When is testing complete? When time and budget are exhausted.
B. C. D.
When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding. When every data combination is exercised correctly.
23. Which pair of definitions is correct? A. Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; confirmation testing is testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software. B. Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software; confirmation testing enables developers to isolate the problem. C. Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; confirmation testing runs new tests. D. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, confirmation testing is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed. 24. Ensuring that the test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives? A. Finishing the project on time. B. Gaining confidence in the system. C. Preventing defects in the system. D. Finding defects through dynamic testing. 25. Which option is part of the implementation and execution area of the fundamental test process? A. Developing the tests. B. Comparing actual and expected results. C. Writing a test summary report. D. Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases. 26. Which bug causes a failure? a) Software b) Configuration c) Documentation d) Requirements 27. The deviation from the requirements which is visible to end-s is a) Error b) Fault c) Mistake d) Failure 28. Which of the following requirements is testable? a) The system shall be friendly. b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults. c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load. d) The system shall be built to be portabl 29. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to: a) find as many faults as possible. b) test high risk areas. c) obtain good test coverage. d) test whatever is easiest to tes
30. Enough testing has been performed when: a) time runs out. b) the required level of confidence has been achieved. c) no more faults are found. d) the s won’t find any serious fault 31. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults? a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then. c) Faults are costlier to find in the early development phases but the most cheap to fix then. d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then 32. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? a) To find faults in the software. b) To assess whether the software is ready for release. c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work. d) To prove that the software is correct 33. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle? a) It allows the identification of changes in requirements. b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment. c) It reduces defect multiplication. d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project 34. A failure is: a) found in the software; the result of an error. b) departure from specified behaviour. c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program. d) a human action that produces an incorrect resul 35. The most important thing about early test design is that it: a) makes test preparation easier. b) means inspections are not required. c) can prevent fault multiplication. d) will find all faults 36. Faults found by s are due to: a. Poor quality software b. Poor software and poor testing c. bad luck d. insufficient time for testing 37. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it? a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release c. to find as many bugs as possible before release d. to give information for a risk based decision about release 38. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why? a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing. b. wages are rising c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc d. none of the above 39. Which is not true-The black box tester a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document b. should be able to understand the source code. c. is highly motivated to find faults d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses 40. Which of the following statements are true? a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix. b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix. c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix
16. Pick the best definition of quality a. Quality is job one b. Zero defects c. Conformance to requirements d. Work as designed 17. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is : a. Lack of technical documentation b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers c. Lack of training d. Lack of Objectivity 18. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start? a. When the code is complete. b. When the design is complete. c. When the draft versions of software requirements are available d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing 19. “How much testing is enough?” a. This question is impossible to answer b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
ISTQB sample questions Chapter 1
1.Test granularity refers to: A. The impact of a bug on the system under test. B. A quality improvement idea common in software development. C. Any way of determining the expected result for a test case. D. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus. D. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus.
2.The prime benefit of testing is that it results in improved defects a. True b. False b. False
3.A bug report is a: A. A & B B. A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug. C. A collection of independent, reusable test cases. D. A deliverable that details the strategic approach to a testing effort B. A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug.
4.A software error can be described as: A. A mismatch between the program and its specification. B. Any ill-advised, substandard, or temporary fix
applied to an urgent problem in the (often misguided) belief that doing so will keep a project moving forward. C. A description of the relationship between two or more variables or set in which the value of one does not influence the values of others. D. The process in which developers determine the root cause of a bug and identify possible fixes. A. A mismatch between the program and its specification.
5.Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is impossible: A. The interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely test. B. Limited financial resources. C. The domain of possible inputs is too large to test . D. There are too many possible paths through the program to test. B. Limited financial resources.
6.Testing looks for situations in which a product fails to meet the developer’s expectations in specific areas. a. True b. False b. False
7.Select a reason that does not the idea of using separate test plans for test subprojects that are distinct in one or more ways: A. Different objectives B. Different audiences C. Different time periods D. Different methodologies E. Different resources
E. Different resources
8.The testing effort begins with A. B & C B. A & B C. Test planning D. Test execution E. Test case design B. A & B
9.Testing during the design stage involves: A. Acceptance or qualification testing B. Reading drafts of the planning documents C. Examining the design documents d. None of the above C. Examining the design documents
10. A well-designed test system promotes: A. ability B. Actions C. Principles D. Resources A. ability
11. When testing operating systems or applications, the first step of testing a new build should consist of : A. A & B B. Updating requirements C. Notifying test lead D. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures D. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures
12. The general rule of test execution is that you must always create a test procedure that will force the
program to use the data you’ve entered and to prove that it is using your data correctly. a. True b. False a. True
13. Which is not a goal of writing effective Problem/Bug reports? A. Write a report that is complete, easy to understand, and non-antagonistic B. Explain how to reproduce the problem C. Illustrate how to fix the problem D. Analyze the error so you can describe it in a minimum number of steps C. Illustrate how to fix the problem
14. Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team? A. The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release. B. The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test. C. All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes D. Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times. B. The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test.
15. The daily closure period refers to: A. The average number of days between the opening of
a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day. B. The amount of bugs opened over a 24 hour period C. The average for all closed bugs, including the current day and all previous days d. None of the Above A. The average number of days between the opening of a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day.
16. Integrity testing involves: A. The final phase of testing prior to deployment B. Performance testing C. The testing of pseudo code D. Alpha testing A. The final phase of testing prior to deployment
17. Testing literature reflects and promotes a strongly held belief that product reliability will not be better if testing is done by a fully independent test agency. a. True b. False b. False
18. Select the item(s) that are general testing principles: a. Testing shows a presence of defects b. Exhaustive testing is impossible c. Automation tools can be a great strategy d. Absence-of-errors fallacy o a. Testing shows a presence of defects o b. Exhaustive testing is impossible o d. Absence-of-errors fallacy
19. Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution: A. ing that the test environment has been set up correctly B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware. C. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts. D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
20. Select the item(s) that compose test objectives: a. Finding defects b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information c. Preventing defects d. Utilization of testware o a. Finding defects o b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information o c. Preventing defects
21. A bug or defect is: A. the result of a failure, which may lead to an error B. a run-time problem experienced by a C. a mistake made by a person D. the result of an error or mistake; D. the result of an error or mistake;
22. The effect of testing is to: A. show there are no problems remaining? B.give an indication of the software quality; C. increase software quality; D. enable those responsible for software failures to be identified; B. give an indication of the software quality;
23. What is retesting? A. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved. B. A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced. C. Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem. D. Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met. A. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.
24. Debugging is: A. Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix. B. Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected. C. Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly. D. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct. D. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.
(a. is a brief definition of testing. b. is restesting, and d. is regression testiong.)
25. Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it? i. Try to understand how the other person feels. ii. Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals. iii. Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa. iv. Emphasise the common goal of better quality. v. Each discussion is a battle to be won. A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) aid, (i) and (v) hinder. B. (iii), (iv) and (v) aid, (i) and (ii) hinder. C. (i), (ii) and (iii) aid, (iv) and (v) hinder. D. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder. D. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder.
26. Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process? A. Analysing lessons learnt for future releases. B. Comparing actual and expected results. C. Developing the tests. D. Writing a test summary. B. Comparing actual and expected results. (a. is part of Analysis and design, c. is part of 'evaluating exit criteria and reporting', and d. is part of 'Test closure activities')
27. The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order? A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.
B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities. C. Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design. D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design. B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
28. Which pair of definitions is correct? A. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed. B. Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software; retesting enables developers to isolate the problem. C. Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; retesting is testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software. D. Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; retesting runs new tests. A. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed.
29. Which statement is most true? A. A technique that has found no defects is not useful. B. All software is tested in the same way. C. Different testing is needed depending upon the application. D. A technique that finds defects will always find defects.
C. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.
30. When is testing complete? A. When every data combination has been exercised successfully. B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. C. When time and budget are exhausted. D. When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding. B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. (Sometimes time and money does signify the end of testing, but it is really complete when everything that was set out in advance has been achieved)
31. Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first? A. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by the author. B. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company. C. Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team; tests designed by someone from a different company. D. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.
D. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.
32. The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process. i. Evaluating the testability of requirements. ii. Repeating testing activities after changes. iii. Deg the test environment set-up. iv. Developing and prioritising test cases. v. ing the environment is set up correctly. Which statement below is TRUE? A. (i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution. B. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution. C. (i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution. D. (i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution. B. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
33. Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics? A. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest. B. Public: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest. Profession: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
C. Public: Certified software testers shall act in the best interests of their client and employer (being consistent with the wider public interest). Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest. D. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall participate in lifelong learning regarding the practice of their profession and shall promote an ethical approach to the practice of their profession. A. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest. Home > Print Preview Question Excerpt 1. Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
A Test principles only affect the preparation for testing. . B Test principles only affect test execution activities. . C Test principles affect the early test activities such as review. . D Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle. . 2. A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the s are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed? A Absence-of-errors fallacy . B Exhaustive testing is impossible . C Defect clustering . D Pesticide paradox .
3. Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
A Understanding what managers value about testing. . B Explaining test results in a neutral fashion. . C Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs. . D Promoting better quality software whenever possible. .
4. According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word "bug" is synomous with which of the following words?
A Incident . B.Defect C Mistake . D.Error
5. According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
A Negative to the tester. . B Negative consequences that will occur. . C Negative consequences that could occur . D Negative consequences for the test object. . 6. A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test again the package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing? A To build confidence in the application . B To detect bugs in the application . C.To gather evidence for a lawsuit D To train the s .
7. Ensuring that a test design start during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
A Preventing defects in the system. . B Finding defects through dynamic testing. . C Gaining confidence in the system. . D Finishing the project on time. .
8. According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
A To the success of corrective actions. . B To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed. . C To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification. . D To motivate better unit testing by the programmers. .
Questions Q1 Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process. (i) Test Implementation and Execution (ii) Test Closure activities (iii) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting (iv) Test Planning and Control (v) Test Analysis and Design (A) iv - v - iii - ii - i (C) iv - v - i - iii - ii
(B) v - i - iii - ii - iv (D) v - ii - iii - i - iv
Correc t Ans Correc t Ans :C
Correc t Ans :A
Q3 What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process? a. Analyze the test basis documents. b. Define the expected results. c. Create the test execution schedule. d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions (A) d, a, c, b (C) a, b, c, d
Correc t Ans :B
(B) a, d, b, c (D) a, b, d, c
Q4 Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning? a. Scheduling test analysis and design. b. Deg Test Conditions. c. Monitoring test progress. d. Identifying the objectives of testing. e. Evaluating test tools. f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.
Correc t Ans :B
(A) b, c and d (B) a, d and f (C) a, d and e (D) b, c and f Correc t Ans :C Q6 What should be taken into to determine when to stop testing? Correc I. Technical risk t II. Business risk Ans :D III Project constraints IV Product documentation (A) I and II are true. III and N are false (B) III is true, I, II, and IV are false (C) I, II, and IV are true; III is false (D) I, II, and III are true, IV is false.
Correc t Ans :B
Correc t Ans :D Q9 Which of the following is true? Correc (A) Component testing should be black box, system testing should be t white box. (B) If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very Ans :B confident about the quality of software. (C) The fewer bugs you find, the better your testing was (D) The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find. Correc t Ans :C Correc t Ans :A Q12 Which of the following could be a reason for a failure 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Environment Fault 5) Documentation Fault (A) 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not (B) 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not (C) 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not (D) All of them are valid reasons for failure.
Correc t Ans :D
Correc t Ans :C Correc t Ans :B Q15 Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?
Correc t Ans :B
(A) Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products. (B) For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations. (C) Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool , feasible for all software. (D) The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products. Correc t Ans :D
Correc t Ans :D Correc t Ans :C Correc t Ans :A
Correc t Ans :A
Questions
Q22 Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Asg resources. iv) Building the test environment . v) Writing test conditions.
Correc t Ans Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :B
(A) i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. (B) . ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false. (C) . iv& v are true, i, ii & iii are false. (D) i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false. Correct Ans :B
Correct Ans :C
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :C
Correct Ans :B
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :A
Correct Ans :D
Correct Ans :B
Correct Ans :B
Q39 Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major Correct tasks? Ans :A i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. ing that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria. (A) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false (B) i,iv are true and ii is false (C) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false (D) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Correct Ans :C
xams of Chapter I Các bạn có thể tham khảo toàn bộ câu hỏi ở đây istqb questions Question 1 A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
a. To build confidence in the application.
b. To detect bugs in the application.
c. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
d. To train the s. Question 2 According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word ‘bug’ is synonymous with which of the following words?
a. Incident
b. Defect
c. Mistake
d. Error Question 3 According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
a. Negative to the tester.
b. Negative consequences that will occur.
c. Negative consequences that could occur.
d. Negative consequences for the test object.
Question 4 Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
a. Preventing defects in the system.
b. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
c. Gaining confidence in the system.
d. Finishing the project on time. Question 5 A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the s are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
a. Exhaustive testing is impossible
b. Defect clustering
c. Pesticide paradox
d. Absence-of-errors fallacy Question 6 According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
a. To the success of corrective actions.
b. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
c. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
d. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers. Question 7 Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
a. Understanding what managers value about testing.
b. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
c. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
d. Promoting better quality software whenever possible. Question 8 Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
a. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
b. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
c. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
d. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.
his simulator contains following questions:
================================================ Q1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except: a) Test data b) Test data plan c) Test summary report d) Test procedure plan Q2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? a) Schedules and deliverables b) Hardware and software c) Entry and exit criteria d) Types of test cases Q3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are: A. deviations from standards, B.requirement defects, C.design defects, D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E.All of the above. Q4. Load Testing Tools a) reduces the time spent by the testers b) reduces the resources spent (hardware) c) mostly used in web testing d) all of the above Q5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective – A.identifying defects. B. fixing defects. C. 1 and 2 D. None Q6. Defect arrival rate curve: A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time. C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time. D. Any of these, depending on the company. Q7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis? a) The probability the negative event will occur b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b Q8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because: A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF statement, and you got to the statement with a test that ed
through the FALSE branch. B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control. C. Both A and B D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute. Q9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? a. Test manager b. Test engineer c. both A & B d. Project Manager Q10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested b) Use automation tool for testing c) a and b d) None of the above Q11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites a) Interaction between html pages b) Performance on the client side c) Security aspects d) All of the above Q12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand howrequirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategiescan be worked out in advance, if possible. b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into theproject, while moving more difficult new requirements into futureversions of the application c) Both a and b d) None of the above Q13. The selection of test cases for regression testing a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system b) Includes the area of frequent defects c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes d) All of the above Q14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because: A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well. B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result. C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions. D. All of the above. Q15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” a. No, the problem is not with testers b. No, the software is not ready for production c. Both a & b d. none of the above Q16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include: A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparingto do the rest of the project's work more efficiently B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn'talarm them. C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to notreport bugs. D. All of the above Q17. Operations testing is: a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. ing compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations Q18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as a. functional automation tools b. performance testing tools c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above. Q19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free. B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for somemanagers to argue for very little testing. C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks. D. All of the above. Q20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process a) Assess development plan and status b) Develop the test plan c) Test software design d) Test software requirement Q21. In the MASPAR case study: A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code. B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage butmissed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system. C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almostevery input value to find its two special-case failures. D. All of the above. Q22. Complete statement and branch coverage means: A. That you have tested every statement in the program. B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program. C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program. D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program Q23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested b) Use automation tool for testing c) a and b d) None of the above Q24. Security falls under a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. ing compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations Q25. Which is the best definition of complete testing: A. You have discovered every bug in the program. B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in theprogram. C. You have completed every test in the test plan. D. You have reached the scheduled ship date. Q26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having theeffects of that change show up in some test? a) Desk checking b) Debugging a program c) A mutation error d) Performance testing e) Introducing mutations
Answers:
1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - E, 4 - D, 5 - A, 6 - A, 7 - C, 8 - C, 9 - A,
10 - A, 11 - D, 12 - C , , , , , ,
13 - D 14 - A 15 - B, 16 - D 17 - E 18 - C 19 - D
, 20 - C , 21 - C, 22 - B , 23 - A , 24 - A , 25 - D , 26 - E
Related Documents 3m3m1z
Istqb Chapter 1 Questions 4c5q55
October 2019 107
Essay Questions Chapter 1 Questions 5el5b
October 2019 110
Istqb Advanced Test Analyst - Questions k714h
July 2022 0
Chapter 1 Questions 676y1m
December 2021 0
April 2022 0
Istqb Sample Paper - 500 Questions 114ci
November 2019 48More Documents from "Mirka Ivanova" 2rc3q
Istqb Chapter 1 Questions 4c5q55
October 2019 107
6l6m1j
February 2021 0
6l6m1j
February 2021 0
6l6m1j
February 2022 0
Personality Adjectives e131m
September 2022 0