Nmat Reviewer 195w3f

NMAT REVIEWER ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY TEST MOLAR MASS, % COMPOSITION, AND STOICHIOMETRY 1. w/c compound has the highest molar mass?(H=1,C=12,O=16,S=32,Cl=35.5,K=39, Ba=137) A. C6H12O6 B. BaO C. CCl4 D. K2SO4 2. What is the percentage of oxygen in ferric oxide? A. 70% B. 60% C. 40% D. 30% 3. What is the mass of one atom of magnesium? (Mg-24) A. 24 g. B. 6.0 x 1023 C. 4.0 x 10-23 D. 2.5 x 1022 4. How many moles of aspirin, C9H8O4, are present in 112 g? A. 1.61 mol B. 0.619 mol C. 112 mol D. 0.161 mol 5. What is the molar mass of barium nitrate? (Ba=137, N=14, O=16) A. 199.3g/mol B. 261.3g/mol C. 247.3 g/mol D. 167.3 g/mol 6. Which of these compounds has the largest oxygen percentage? A. SO2 B. SO3 C.N2O3 D. N2O5 7. In Ag2CO3, the percent by mass of A. Carbon is 43.5% B. silver is 64.2 % C. oxygen is 17.4% D. oxygen is 21.9% 8. What is the empirical formula of a compound containing 31.0 % Ti and 69.0%Cl? A. TiCl B. TiCl2 C.TiCl3 D.TiCl4 9. A compound contains 40.0%C, 6,7%H and 53.3% O. The molar mass is 60.0 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of this compound? A. C2H3O2 B. C3H8O C. CH2O D. C2H4O2 10. When 10.0 g. of MgCl2 reacts with 10.0g of Na2CO3. Which is the limiting reagent? A. MgCl2 B. Na2CO3 C. MgCO3 D. NaCl 11. When 50.0 g of copper is reacted with silver nitrate solution, 148 g of silver is obtained. What is the percent yield of silver obtained? A. 87.1% B. 84.9 % C. 55.2 % D. none 12. What law explains that 100 ml and 10g of water sample both contains 11.1% and 89.9% O? A. Law of Conservation of Mass B. Law of Definite Proportion B. C. Law of Multiple proportion D. Law of Thermodynamics SOLUTION CONCENTRATION 1. What volume of 6.0 M HCl will be needed to react with 0.350 mol of CaCO3? A. 42.0 ml B. 1.17L C. 117 ml D. 583 ml 2. If 5.3 g. of CaCl2 is produced in the reaction, what is the molarity of the HCl used if 25 ml of it reacted with excess CaCO3? A. 3.8M B. 0.19M C. 0.38M D. 0.42 M 3. How many ml of 6.0 M H2SO4 must you use to prepare 500.0 ml of 0.20 M H2SO4? A. 30 B. 17 C. 12 D. 100 4. How many milliliters of water must be added to 200.0 ml of 1.40 M HCl to make a solution that is 0.500 ml HCl? A. 360 ml B. 560 ml C. 140 ml D. 280 ml 5. If 5.00 g NaCl is dissolved in 25.0 g of water, what is the percentage of NaCl by mass? A. 16.7% B. 20.0% C. 0.20% D. 0.48% 6. How many grams of 9.0% AgNO3 solution will contain 5.3 g? A. 47.7 g B. 0.58g C. 59 g D. 0.48 g 7. What volume of 0.300 M KCl will contain 15.3 g. KCl (K=39,Cl=35.5) A. 1.46L B. 683 ml C. 61.5 ml D. 4.60 L 8. Which of these anions will not form a precipitate with silver ions? A. Chloride B. nitrate C. bromide D. carbonate 9. What is the resulting molarity of a mixture of 10.0 ml of a 2.0M HCl and 20.0 ml of a 1.0 M HCl solution? A. 1.65 B. 1.33 C. 2.0 M D. 3.0M 10. What is the chloride ion concentration in 300.0 ml 0f 0.10 M AlCl3? A. 0.30 M B. 0.10 M C. 0.030 M D. 0.90M 11. A 100 ml solution contains 4 g of NaOH. If 50 ml of water is added to this solution, which will remain unchanged? A. molarity of solution C. number of moles of NaOH B. percent by weight of NaOH D. normality of NaOH

12. which of the following has a different molarity from the rest? A. 6 N H3PO4 B. 4 N Ca(OH)2 C. 8 N HC2H3O2 D. 2 N NH3 13. What is the concentration of an acetic acid solution which is 2.0% ionized? (Ka=1.8 x 10-5) A. 0.045 B. 0.020 C. 1.8 x 10-5 D. 5.6 x 10-10 14. What is the percent ionization of a 1.00 M solution of HCN? ( ka=6.2 x 10-10) A. 0.25% B. 0.0025% C. 25% D.0.025% 15. What is the equivalence of parts per million? A. mg/g B. ng/g C. mg/Kg D. ug/g CLASSICAL ANALYTICAL METHODS AND INSTRUMENTAL METHODS 1. In a gravimetric analysis of elemental phosphorous in a fertilizer sample, the analyte was first converted to MgNH4PO4 before it was washed and weighed. What is the correct expression for the gravimetric factor if you are to express the result in % P2O5? A. FW/P2O5/FWMgNH4PO4 B. FWMgNH4PO4 /FW/P2O5 B. FW/P2O5/2FWMgNH4PO4 D. 2FW/P2O5/FWMgNH4PO4 2. When KMnO4 is reacted with Fe2+ in acid medium, Mn+2and Fe+3 are formed. What is the equivalent weight of KMnO4 in this reaction? A. 158.0 B. 31.0 C. 79.0 D. 15.8 3. If 16.55 ml of 0.844 M NaOH is required to titrate 10.00 ml of a hydrochloric acid solution, what is the molarity of the acid? A. 0.700 M B. 0.510 M C. 1.40M D. 0.255 M 4. An aqueous solution has a pH of 3.00. What is its hydroxide ion concentration? A. 1.0 x 10-3M B. 1.0 x 10-4M C. 1.0 x 10-11M D.1.0 x 10-10M 5. The combination equivalent amounts of acid and base is. A. Precipitation B. neutralization C. hydrolysis D. ionization 6. If the absorbance of a 0.002 M solution is 0.800, what is the molar absorptivity of 470 nm in a 1.00 cm cell? A. 400L/mol-cm B. 0.0016 C. 16 D. 0.400 7. A sample of crude protein has a mass of 0.3600 g wet basis. After an hour of oven drying and then cooling, the mass of the protein was 0.3000g. What is the % moisture in the sample? A. 83.33% B. 20.00% C. 16.67% D. 0.167% 8. What is the method that involves the titration of chloride by silver nitrate where the endpoint is determined by the formation of the red silver chromate precipitate? A. Mohr B. Volhard C. Kjeldahl D. Liebig 9. Which of the following is not an advantage of using instrumental analysis? A. Fast determination B. high sensitivity C. specialized training is not required D. small samples used. 10. Which law states that the amount of light absorbed by a solution is a linear function of the concentration of the absorbing species? A. Dalton’s Law B. Boyle’s Law C. Beer’s law D. Charles’ Law 11. Which method can determine accurately calcium content? A. Gravimetry B. EDTA titration C. potentiometry D. UV-VIS Spectroscopy 12. What is the indicator used in iodometry? A. Iodine B. phenolphthalein C. iodide D. starch 13. How many kilograms of wet NaOH containing 12% water are required to prepare 60L of 0.50 M solution? A. 1.20 B. 1.36 C. 10 D. 12 14. In an acid-base titration using phenolphthalein as indicator, what is the color when equivalence point is reached? A. Dark pink B. faint pink C. yellow D. orange 15. A calibration curve shows a plot of. A. Absorbance vs concentration B. concentration vs absorbance C. absorptivity vs concentration D. concentration vs absorptivity INORGANIC CHEMISTRY 1. An empty graduated cylinder has a mass of 54.772 g. When filled with 50 ml of an unknown liquid, it has a mass of 101.074 g. What is the density of the liquid? A. 0.926 g/ml B. 1.08 g/ml C. 2.02 g/ml D. 1.85 g/ml 2. How many atoms are present in Na2CrO4?

A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8 3. When a pure substance was analyzed, it was found to contain iron and oxygen. What is the classification of this substance? A. An element B. a compound C. a mixture D. both B& C 4. Which is not a characteristic of a solution? A homogenous mixture B. a heterogeneous mixture C. contains two or more substances D. has a variable composition. 5. Which of the following does not represent a chemical change? A. Heating of copper in air C. combustion of gasoline B. cooling of red hot iron D. digestion of foods 6. Which pair of symbols represents isotopes? A. 2311Na and 2312 B. 73Li and 63Li C. 6329Cu and 29 64Cu D. 1224Mg and 1226Mg 7. Two naturally occurring isotopes of an element have masses and abundances as follows: 54.00 amu (20%) and 56.00 amu (80%). What is the relative atomic mass of the element? A. 54.20 B. 54. 5.60 C. 54.80 D. 5 108 8. The number of neutrons in 47Ag is40 A. 47 B. 108 C. 155 D. 61 24 +2 9. The number of electrons in the nucleus of an atom of 12Mg is A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 10 10. What is the correct electron configuration for 48Cd? A. 1s22S22p63S23p64S23d10 B. 1s22S22p63S23p64S23d104p65S24d10 C. 1s22S22p63S23p64S23d10 4p65S24d4 D. 1s22S22p63S23p64S23d10 4p65S24d10 5S2 5d10 11. How many orbitals are in a d sublevel? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10 12. Which of these elements has two s and six p electrons in its outer energy level? A. He B. O C. Ar D. Na 13. which elements has the largest number of unpaired electrons? A. 9F B. 16S C. 29Cu D. 7N 14. Groups IIIA-VIIA plus the noble gases from the area of the periodic table where the electrons sublevels being filled are. A. p sublevels B. s and p sublevels C. d sublevels D. f sublevels 15. Elements of the noble gas family A. form no compounds at all B. have no valence electrons C. have an outer electron structure ns2np6(exceptHe) D. all of the above 16. which is the most metallic element? A. C B. Si C. Ge D. Sn 17. if the size of the fluorine atom is compared to the size of the fluoride ion, A. they would both be the same size B. the atom is larger than the ion C. the ion is larger than the atom D. the size difference depends on the reaction 18. Which is the most electronegative? A. N B. C C. F D. O 19. which of the following is not true of the group II elements? A. Ca is bigger than Mg. B. they have relatively low electronegativity C. Ra has the highest ionization potential D. Be is the most active metal 20. Based on the table below, which substance will float in water? Substance Mass (g) Volume (ml) K 10 20 L 20 10 M 5 1 N 20 5 A. K B. L C. M D. N

21. In every chemical reaction of substance X, the sum of the masses of the products formed is greater than the initial mass of X which undergoes a reaction. Substance Y, in turn, undergoes a chemical reaction in which the combined mass of the products is exactly equal to the initial mass of Y which reacted. What kind of substances are X and Y? A. X is a mixture and Y is a pure Compound B. X is a pure compound and Y is a mixture C. both X and Y are mixtures D. both X and Y are pure compounds 22. If X represents an element of group IIIA, what is the general formula for its oxide? A. X3O4 B. X3O2 C. XO D. X2O3 23. which is an extensive property? A. mass B. density C. boiling point D. color 24. Which of the following has the same electron structure as 18Ar? A. 20Ca+2 B. 17Cl C. 11Na+1 D. 19K 25. Sodium is a very active metal because A. it has low ionization energy B. it has only one outermost electron C. it has a relatively small atomic mass D. all of the above CHEMICAL BONDING,IMFA, GASES 1. Which of the following is correctly paired? A. HCO3;carbonic acid B. H2S hydrosulfuric acid C. MgCl2;magnesium dichloride D. NO3;nitrate 2. Which of the following involves ionic bonding? A. H2 B. BaF2 C. H2O D. CCl4 3. Which of the following does not have a polar covalent bond? A. CH4 B.H2O C.CO2 D. Cl2 4. Carbon dioxide is a nonpolar molecule because A. Oxygen is more electronegative than carbon B. The two oxygen atoms are bonded to the carbon atom C. The molecule has a linear structure with the carbon in the middle D. The carbon-oxygen bonds are polar covalent 5. Which compounds has a tetrahedral geometry? A. NH3 B. CH4 C.H2O D.SO2 6. What is the total number of valence electrons in nitrate, NO3-1? A. 12 B. 18 C. 23 D. 24 7. How many unbounded pairs of electrons are there in water? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 8. What is the density of NH3(g) at STP? A. 0.760 g/ml B. 0.76 g/L C. 1.32 g/ml D. 1.32 g/L 9. Box A contains O2 at a pressure of 200 Torr. Box B, which is identical to Box A in volume, contains twice as many molecules of CH4 as the molecules in O2 in box A. The temperatures of the gases are identical. What is the pressure in box B? A. 100 torr B.200 torr C. 400 Torr D. 800 torr 10. A volume of 1.1 L of O2 was collected inside a balloon at 295 K and 13.6 psi. The next day, the surrounding conditions were observed to be 320C and 0.98 atm. What is the volume of the gas inside the balloon? (1 atm = 14.7 psi) A. 0.107L B. 1.07L C. 10.7L D. 107 L 11. What is the molecular weight of an unknown gas if 200 ml of it diffuses through an apparatus in 180 seconds while 250 ml of NO2 under the same conditions diffuses at 170 seconds? A. 8.97 g/mol B. 80.52 g/mol C. 60.88 g/mol D. 805.2 g/mol 12. Gas A and B contain the same number of molecules and are at the same temperature. The external pressure on gas A is twice that of gas B. What can be said of the volume of gas A compared with gas B? A. Twice that of gas B B. one-half that of gas B C. four times that of gas B D. same as that of gas B 13. Which of the following is most soluble in benzene? A. Hexane B. potassium chloride C. toluene D. ethanol 14. What type of intermolecular forces of attraction predominates in CH3COOH? A. LDF B. dipole-dipole C. H-bonding D. induced dipole 15. In the equation; Zn + Cu(NO3)2 + Cu What change did zinc undergo?

A. Reduced and its oxidation number increased B. reduced and its oxidation number decreased C. oxidized and its oxidation number increased D. oxidized and its oxidation number decreased 16. When aluminum reacts with hydrochloric acid, the final solution weighs less than the sum of the original reactants. What is the explanation for this? A. Aluminum metal became an aluminum ion B. a gas was evolved and escaped C. the reaction does not obey the Law of Conservation of Matter D. the reaction between Al and HCl did not proceed completely. 17. What is the charge of carbon in calcium oxalate? A. +3 B. +4 C. -3 D. -2 18. When iron reacts with oxygen, ferric oxide is formed. What is the role of iron in the reaction? A. Oxidizing agent B. reducing agent C. limiting reagent D. excess reagent 19. What type of reaction is shown in the reaction? BaCl2 + (NH4)2CO3 -- BaCO3 + 2 NH4Cl A. Single displacement B. double displacement C. combination D. decomposition 20. What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation; 2Al(OH)3 + 3H2SO4 -1Al2(SO4)3 + 6H2O is balanced? A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 15 21. What bond is present in N2 molecule? A. triple B. double C. single D. ionic 22. Which of the following is correct? A. F2 is ionic B. NH3 is non-polar C. HI is polar covalent D. CaCl2 is covalent and polar 23. When MnO4- is changed to Mn+2 through redox process, how many electrons are involved? A. Gain of 5 electrons B. loss of 5 electrons C. gain of 1 electron D. loss of 1 electron 24. What law is obeyed in balancing chemical equations? A. Law of definite composition B. law of multiple proportions C. Law of Conservation of Matter D. Law of Thermodynamics. BIOCHEMISTRY CARBOHYDRATES 1. Which of the following two sugars are related as enantiomers? A. D-glucose and L-mannose B. D-galactose and D-mannose C. L-glucose and L-mannose D. L-galactose and D-galactose 2. Which of the following sugars are epimers? A. D-glucose and L- mannose B. D-galactose and D-mannose C. L-glucose and Lmannose D. L-galactose and D-galactose 3. D-ribose is not classified as A. Tetrose B. monosaccharide C. aldose D. pentose 4. Sucrose is classified as A. Monosaccharide B. reducing sugar C. trisaccharide D. non-reducing sugar 5. Alpha-D-glucopppyranose is related to beta-D-glucopyranose as A. Pair of epimers B. pair of diastereomers C. pair of anomers D. none 6. Which of the following is an exaaample of a ketose? A. D-glyceraldehyde B. alpha-D-glucofuranose C. L-galactose D.dihydroxyacetone 7. What is the name of the Carbohydrate? A. alpha-D-glucopyranose B. lactose C. beta-D-galactopyranose D. beta-D-glucopyranose 8. The conversion of beta-D-mannopyranose to alpha-D-mannopyranose is called A. mutaration C. reduction B. oxidation D. epimerization 9. Lactose is also known as A. Levulose C. grape sugar B. Invert sugar D. milk sugar 10. In a Benedicts test, which of the following groups does not react?

A. hemiacetal C. acetal B. hemiketal D. aldehyde 11. D-glucose when reacted with the Benedict’s reagent is converted to A. D-glucitol C. D-glucaric acid B. D-gluconic acid D. saccharic acid 12. Amylopectin can be described as A. a linear oligosaccharide B. a branching oligosaccharide C. a component of glycogen D. a component of starch 13. When maltose is reacted in the Benedict test A. CU2 O is produced B. the hemiacetal is reduced C. no changed is observed D. the acetal is cleaved 14. Cellulose can be described as a polymer of A. alpha-D-glucopyranose B. alpha-D-glucofuranose C. beta-D-glucofuranose D. none of the above 15. The FDA sets dietary levels for sugar substitutes. These levels are called a person’s A. recommended dietary allowance B. acceptable daily intake C. acceptable dietary consumption D. recommended daily consumption 16. Which is the carbohydrate reservoir in animals? A. starch B. glycogen C. glucose D. cellulose 17. What is the linkage involved in cellulose? A. alpha-1,4 B. alpha-1,6 C. beta-1,4 D. beta-1,6 18. What monosaccharide unit/s make up lactose? A. glucose B. galactose and glucose C. glucose and mannose D. lactose and mannose 19. When starch is completely hydrolyzed, the iodine test produces a A. blue violet complex B. yellow complex C. violet precipitate D. Yellow precipitate 20. What is the most important energy-storage carbohydrate in plants? A. cellulose B. starch C. glycogen D. glucose 21. Which of the following is true of carbohydrates? A. can provide biological energy B. can serve as building materials C. water-soluble molecules D. all of the above 22. Which of the following is a branched polysaccharide? A. Amylase C. amylopectin B. Cellulose D. all of the above 23. The sugar below is a A. hemiacetal C. hemiketal B. acetal D. ketal

24. Disaccharides can be classified based on A. monosaccharide units B. glycosidic linkage C. anomeric carbon linkage D. all of the above 25. Which is incorrect paired? A. fructose:ketohexose B. ribose:pentoaldose C. glucose:ketoaldose D. galactose:pentoketose